Problem: First Timothy 2:5 asserts that “there is one … Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus.” But Romans 8:26 informs us that the Holy Spirit intercedes for us to God “with groanings which cannot be uttered.” How can Christ be the only mediator when the Holy Spirit also mediates?
Problem: Paul asserts that Jesus was made “in the likeness of sinful flesh,” but he does not assert that Jesus is human flesh. Yet the Bible speaks repeatedly of Jesus being incarnated in human flesh, that is, of being truly human, not just like a human.
Problem: Most translations of this verse read: “Therefore, there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus.” But, the KJV (and the NKJV) read: “There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.” The KJV seems to imply that our condemnation is conditional based on our spiritual walk. Which is true?
Problem: Many interpreters do not believe Paul is referring to his own present struggle with sin here. Dunn writes, “Most interpreters now also agree that it would be a mistake to treat the passage autobiographically and to look for matching stages in Paul’s own experience.”[1] Douglas Moo writes that “most Pauline scholars think that Paul describes his life as a Jew under the law.”[2] He continues, “We adopt the… view, that Paul is describing his life as a Jew under the law, before he came to Christ.”[3] Other interpreters believe that Paul is referring to his own personal struggle with sin. Which is a better interpretation?
Problem: Commentators disagree over the fact that Paul is referring to himself during spiritual growth here. We have already argued that Romans 7:6 refers to sanctification—not justification (see comments on Rom. 7:6). After Paul came to Christ, he must have fallen back under his old ways of trying to go back under the Law. As a former Pharisee, this would have been a real challenge for Paul. When he fell back under the Law for his spiritual growth, this didn’t bring growth; it brought death.
Problem: Some interpreters believe that the Law is helpful for spiritual growth for Christians. For instance, Reformed theologian Louis Berkhof writes, “The law serves the purpose of restraining sin and promoting righteousness. Considered from this point of view, the law presupposes sin and is necessary on account of sin. It serves the purpose of God’s common grace in the world at large… The law is a rule of life for believers, reminding them of their duties and leading them in the way of life and salvation. This third use of the law is denied by the Antinomians.”[1]
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Problem: Some interpreters claim that the Law died, so we aren’t under the law anymore.
Problem: Some interpreters argue that this passage supports the view that Christians can eventually become perfectly holy and lose their sin nature. Is this the case?
Problem: Some interpreters argue that Paul is referring to water baptism in this passage. For example, John Stott argues that this refers to water baptism:
Problem: Paul writes, “The Law came in so that the transgression would increase” (Rom. 5:20). This seems to imply that the Law actually caused us to sin more. However, many commentators disagree:
Everett Harrison writes, “The law also serves to restrain evil in the world.”[1] [Citing Romans 6:15 and 1 Timothy 1:9-11]
F.F. Bruce writes, “Law increased the trespass by providing opportunities for violating a multiplicity of specific commandments.”[2]
Grant Osborne writes, “The point is not so much an increase in the number of sins but in the seriousness of sin. The law showed people that moral sin transgresses the laws of God.”[3]
Douglas Moo argues that this verse refers to greater judgment for sin: “As we commented on verse 4:15, Paul believes that the Mosaic law, by making people accountable to a specific and detailed series of commandments, brings greater judgment on those sins.”[4]
Does this passage teach that the Law causes us to sin more or less?
Problem: It is agreed by scholars that in Paul’s contrast between the “one” and the “many” here, that “many” means all. For the “many” were “made sinners” by the “one” (Adam’s) sin, and Paul had already concluded that “all have sinned [in Adam]” a few verses earlier (Rom. 5:12). But if all were “made sinners” means all actually became sinners, then why doesn’t all “will be made righteous” in the same verse mean that all will be saved? (Rom. 5:19)
Problem: Universalists argue that Adam’s sin affected everyone on Earth, and Jesus’ work on the Cross will also make everyone righteous. After all, Paul writes, “As through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men. For as through the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous” (Rom. 5:18-19). Does this mean that all people will be saved in the end?\
Problem: Death came to all people because of the sin of Adam (Rom. 5:12), but Romans 5:14 says, “Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not sinned according to the likeness of the transgression of Adam.” But, if they did not sin like Adam, why are they held accountable?
Problem: Paul writes that “sin is not imputed where there is no law.” Does this mean that God did not judge sin before the law was given?
Problem: According to this text, “all [human beings] sinned [in Adam].” But, we were not yet even conceived, let alone born, when Adam sinned. Therefore, we could not possibly have been actual human beings. Hence, we must have been merely potential human beings.