Problem: Paul says that believers will be “cut off,” unless they continue in God’s kindness. Some interpreters argue that this threatens the doctrine of eternal security. Catholic apologist Karl Keating writes, “Paul wrote this to people who were already ‘saved,’ in a state of grace—a grace they could lose, becoming ‘unsaved.’”[1] Is this the case?
Problem: Paul has already stated that Jesus was the fulfillment of the Hebrew Scriptures (1:3-4), and he has quoted these Hebrew Scriptures countless times in his letter to the Romans. And yet, many of the Jews in Paul’s day rejected Jesus as their King. This would appear to be a gross contradiction in God’s plan. This is why Paul addresses this subject in Romans 11:1 (“God has not rejected His people, has He?”). How do we account for so many Jews rejecting Jesus, if he was in fact the Jewish Messiah?
Problem: Paul writes, “How then will they call on Him in whom they have not believed? How will they believe in Him whom they have not heard? And how will they hear without a preacher?” (Rom. 10:14) This verse implies that we need to hear Jesus’ name in order to come to faith. This would mean that billions of people on Earth would go to hell, because they have never heard of Jesus. Is this the case?
Problem: Paul quotes from Deuteronomy 30 twice in this small section (v.6 and v.8), which refers to the law. However, here, Paul is referring to receiving Christ as Savior –apart from the law. Is Paul quoting this verse out of context?
Problem: Paul seems to imply that law-keeping brings life when he cites Leviticus (18:5) that “the man who does those things [written in the law] shall live by them” (Rom. 10:5). But elsewhere Paul himself calls it “the law of sin and death” (Rom. 8:2). He affirms flatly, “the commandment, which was to bring life, I found to bring death” (Rom. 7:10).
Problem: Calvinist interpreters argue that this passage teaches unconditional election. Others go further and claim that this supports the concept of double predestination. Is this the case?
Problem: Calvinistic interpreters understand this entire section to refer to God’s unconditional election and irresistible grace for individual people (vv.17-23). Other Calvinists go further, arguing that this refers to double predestination. Is this the case?
Problem: God hardened Pharaoh’s heart. Is that right?
Romans 9:17-18, “For the Scripture says to Pharaoh, ‘For this very purpose I raised you up, to demonstrate My power in you, and that My name might be proclaimed throughout the whole earth.’ 18 So then He has mercy on whom He desires, and He hardens whom He desires.”
Problem: God said to Pharaoh, “For this very purpose I raised you up, to demonstrate my power in you, and that my name might be proclaimed throughout the whole earth” (Rom. 9:17, nasb). In fulfillment of this, it says that God hardened Pharaoh’s heart (Ex. 4:21; cf. Ex. 7:3). But if God raised up Pharaoh and even hardened his heart to accomplish His divine purposes, then isn’t Pharaoh exempt from responsibility for his actions? Continue reading →
Problem: Citing Malachi 1:2-3, Paul writes, “Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated” (Rom. 9:13). Does God hate unborn babies?
Problem: Paul writes, “From whom is the Christ according to the flesh, who is over all, God blessed forever” (Rom. 9:5). Is this referring to Jesus being God?
Problem: Paul states that he would want to be “accursed,” so that his Jewish friends could know the love of Christ. What is going on in this passage?
Problem: Psalm 44 begins with the psalmist recounting God’s faithfulness with Israel in the past (vv.1-8). But then the psalmist points out that God has allowed his people to be thrown into exile and judgment (vv.9-16). This makes the psalmist wonder how they could be suffering, if they have remained so faithful to God (v.17-21). It is in this context that the psalmist writes, “But for Your sake we are killed all day long; we are considered as sheep to be slaughtered” (v.22). It ends with a plea to God to rescue them from their enemies.
Problem: Calvinistic interpreters argue that Paul is teaching predestination and irresistible grace in this passage. Is this the case?
Problem: Paul writes, “In the same way the Spirit also helps our weakness; for we do not know how to pray as we should, but the Spirit Himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words; 27 and He who searches the hearts knows what the mind of the Spirit is, because He intercedes for the saints according to the will of God” (Rom. 8:26-27). Pentecostal theologians hold that this refers to speaking in tongues. Is this the case?