Rom 5:8 – Does God hate people or love them?

The Bible tells us that God both loves people and hates people. Whether we like it or not the Scriptures teach that God hates those who love violence and love evil. God is too holy to approve of those who love what is opposite to God’s character and nature. But on the other hand, generically speaking, God loves the whole world (John 3:16). Also, he lets the sun shine on the good and the bad. He let’s the rain fall upon all people. So, in this context, he loves all (Matthew 5:43-48).

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

Rom 5:1 – Are we saved by faith or by baptism?

Are we saved from our sins by faith or by faith and baptism?  Though the Bible says that baptism is a very important part of the Christian life, it is not necessary for salvation.  The truth is that we are saved by faith alone in Christ alone.  Let’s take a look at scriptures used for both sides.

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

Rom 5:1 – Do we have justification in the past tense, or are we supposed to seek justification in the future tense?

Problem: Textual critics debate which manuscripts to prefer in Romans 5:1. One set prefers the indicative mood (“we have”), while others prefer the subjunctive mood (“let us have”). Some of our manuscripts use the Greek term echōmen (subjunctive), which means “let us have.” Others contain echomen (indicative), which means “we have.” The subjunctive reading exists in the Byzantine Text, Codex Sinaiticus, Codex Alexandrinus, Codex Bezae, and others. The difference between the two is a single letter in Greek. To add to the confusion, the church fathers quote both versions. Which should we prefer?

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Posted by petra1000

What is wrong with our churches today?

The following applies to professing Christians in The West

The Bible

63% – God is not the provider of truth and the Bible cannot be trusted to fully

represent God-given principles

13% – Read their Bible regularly [which means 87% are open to man’s interptation]

41-43% – consider scripture to be “accurate in its teaching”

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Posted by petra1000 in Apologetics, Bible Study, Bible Teaching, Church

Rom 3:25 – What does “propitiation” mean? (pronounced pro-PISH-ee-ae-shun)

This comes from the Greek word hilastērion (pronounced hill-iss-TARE-ee-on), which some translations render “propitiation” (NASB). In pagan culture, people would offer vegetables, animals, and even human sacrifices to propitiate the wrath of the gods. If you were going on a sea voyage, you would offer propitiation to the god Poseidon, asking him to be propitious of your voyage. If the offering wasn’t good enough, your boat would get into a wreck. Because this word was used by pagans, Christian translators tried to translate it differently: Continue reading →

Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

Rom 3:22 – Is this verse about the “faithfulness OF Jesus” or is it about “our faith IN Jesus”?

Problem: Greek grammarians debate whether or not this passage should be rendered as “faith in Jesus Christ” or “the faithfulness of Jesus Christ.” The first rendering is the objective genitive (“faith in”), while the second rendering is the subjective genitive (“faithfulness of”). Which is it?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

Rom 3:20, 28 – Are we saved by grace or works?

Many people in false religions teach that salvation and forgiveness of sins are obtained by faith and good works. Many appeal to Scripture to support this idea. But, when these verses are examined in context, they do not teach that works of any kind save us. In fact, the Bible clearly teaches that were saved without the works of the law.  This is because nobody can keep the Law perfectly. God requires holiness (1 Pet. 1:16), nothing less.

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

Rom 3:11 – Do humans seek for God or not?

Problem: The Bible teaches that we do and should seek for God (Acts 17:27; Mt. 7:7-8; Jer. 29:13). However, Paul says that “none seek for God.” Likewise, Jesus taught, “No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him” (Jn. 6:44). However, he also taught, “And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to Myself” (Jn. 12:32). Are these passages of Scripture contradictory?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

Rom 2:7 – Is immortality acquired or possessed?

Problem: Paul speaks here of “seeking” immortality. He also refers to acquiring it at the resurrection (1 Cor. 15:53). However, Jesus taught that the soul is immortal, that is, it cannot be destroyed by death (Luke 12:5). Paul also insists that the soul survives death (2 Cor. 5:8; Phil. 1:23; cf. Rev. 6:9). But which is it—do we already possess immortality or do we only acquire it at the resurrection?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching