Problem: Leviticus 17:11 affirmed that God gave blood sacrifices “to make atonement” for our souls. But Hebrews seems to contradict that, insisting that the Aaronic priest “stands ministering daily and offering repeatedly the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins” (10:11).
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Problem: Psalm 40:6 cites the Messiah as saying “My ears You have opened,” but the writer of Hebrews quotes it as “a body You have prepared for Me” (10:5). There is no similarity whatsoever in these quotations. The NT seems to totally distort this OT passage.
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Problem: Hebrews reads, “Therefore, when He comes into the world, He says, ‘Sacrifice and offering you have not desired, but a body you have prepared for me’” (Heb. 10:5). However, when we flip back to the original reference, we read, “Sacrifice and meal offering You have not desired; My ears You have opened” (Ps. 40:6). Critics claim that the author is blatantly twisting this verse.
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Problem: Orthodox Jewish interpreters often argue that the NT authors often overemphasize the importance of blood sacrifices in the OT. In particular, the author of Hebrews writes, “Without shedding of blood there is no forgiveness” (Heb. 9:22). Is this true, or does the OT offer other means of forgiveness besides blood sacrifice?
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Problem: This passage claims that the ark of the covenant had the golden bowl of manna, Aaron’s rod that budded, and the two tables of stone. But elsewhere it affirms that only the tables of stone were there (Ex. 40:20; Deut. 10:5; 1 Kings 8:9). Which is correct?
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Problem: According to Exodus 30:6 (cf. 26:33; 40:3), the altar of incense was in the Holy Place in front of the veil, not in the Most Holy Place behind the veil. However, Hebrews 9:3–4 states that it was “behind the … veil, [in] the part of the tabernacle which is called the Holiest of all.”
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Problem: The author of Hebrews writes, “He said, ‘A new covenant,’ He has made the first obsolete but whatever is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to disappear” (Heb. 8:13). This Scriptural citation comes from Jeremiah 31:31-36, which is addressed to Israel and speaks of the messianic kingdom. Amillennial interpreters claim that this passage demonstrates that the church replaces the old covenant with a new covenant.
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Problem: Christ is presented here as the “High Priest” of believers (cf. 7:21). However, later Jesus is depicted as the “sacrifice” for our sins (Heb. 9:26, 28; 10:10). Which is He?
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Problem: The psalmist declared that the “law of the Lord is perfect” (Ps. 19:7). It reflects the very character of God (cf. Lev. 11:45). Yet the writer of Hebrews insists that “the law made nothing perfect” (7:19), and thus God brought in a “better covenant” (v. 22). This, he contends, would not have been necessary “if that first covenant had been faultless” (Heb. 8:7). So, who is right? Is the law perfect or imperfect?
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Problem: The writer of Hebrews declares that Levi paid tithes to Melchizedek through Abraham. However, Levi was not even born until hundreds of years after this time. So Levi could not possibly have actually paid tithes to Melchizedek—he could only have done it potentially.
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Problem: Hebrews tells us that Melchizedek, “having neither beginning of days nor end of life, but made like the Son of God, remains a priest continually.” Since Jesus assumed this priesthood (7:21), some reincarnationalists use this verse to prove that Jesus is a reincarnation of Melchizedek. Are they correct?
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Problem: Hebrews 6:4–6 seems to be written for Christians because it contains certain characteristics that would be true only of them, such as “partakers of the Holy Spirit” (v. 4). But it declares that if they fall away, it is impossible “to renew them again to repentance, since they crucify again for themselves the Son of God, and put Him to an open shame” (v. 6). Does this mean that Christians can lose their salvation?
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Problem: The author of Hebrews writes of apostate believers that “it is impossible to renew them again to repentance” (Heb. 6:6). Does this passage threaten the notion of eternal security?
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Problem: The author of Hebrews states that Jesus “learned obedience from the things which He suffered. 9 And having been made perfect” (Heb. 5:8-9). Does this mean that Jesus was disobedient or imperfect?
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Problem: On the one hand, it would seem that Christ shrunk from death, since He prayed “with vehement cries and tears to Him who was able to save Him from death” (Heb. 5:7). He said, “O My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from Me” (Matt. 26:39). On the other hand, we are led to believe that He faced death obediently and boldly, for He “steadfastly set His face to go to Jerusalem” (Luke 9:51), calmly facing His arrest, trial, and crucifixion, and repeatedly assuring His disciples He would rise again (Matt. 12:40–42; John 10:18).
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