Problem: In this verse, Paul calls on those who “are perfect” (kjv) to act as he did, but only three verses earlier he claimed that he was not “already perfect” (v. 12), but that he was still pressing on to attain perfection. Which one should we believe?
Phil 3:2 – Was Paul anti-Semitic, calling the Jews “dogs?”
Problem: Paul calls the Jews “dogs.” Does this the support the fact that Christianity was really birthed out of anti-Semitism?
Phil 3:1-2 – Was this section added on from another letter?
Problem: Some critics assert that Paul appears to be wrapping up his letter in 3:1 (“Finally, my brethren…”). However, Paul continues to write for another two chapters. Then, in Philippians 4:8, we read that Paul repeats himself by saying “finally…” all over again. In addition, Polycarp (2nd century) refers to the “letters” (plural) of Paul to the Philippians (To the Philippians, 3.2). Is Philippians really a letter that was spliced together? Continue reading →
Phil 2:25 – If Paul had the gift of healing, why couldn’t he heal his coworker, Epaphroditus?
Problem: In the Book of Acts, Paul healed the sick and even raised the dead (Acts 20:9–10). On one occasion he even healed everyone in an entire city (Acts 28:9). But here, he apparently could not even heal a needed coworker.
Phil 2:12 – Does this mean that we earn our salvation?
Problem: Some interpreters claim that this passage teaches salvation by works. Paul writes, “Work out your salvation with fear and trembling” (Phil. 2:12). Does this mean that Christians have to “work” for their salvation?
Phil 2:10 – Does this passage imply universalism?
Problem: Universalists use this passage to demonstrate that “every knee to bow” (Phil. 2:10). Does this mean that all people will come to Christ in the end?
Phil 2:7 – Did Jesus cease to be God on Earth?
Problem: Some cultists point out that Jesus “emptied Himself” (v.7) of his deity, when he came to Earth. Did Jesus really cease to be God?
Phil 2:6 – Does God have an embodied “form”?
CLAIM: Some critics or cultists argue that this passage implies that God has a physical “form” in heaven. However, God is a disembodied mind without physical form. Which is true?
Phil 2:5–7 – If Christ emptied Himself of deity while on earth, then how could He be God?
Problem: Paul seems to say that Jesus “emptied Himself” of His deity or “equality with God” (vv. 6–7), becoming “a man” (v. 8). But elsewhere Jesus claimed to be God on earth (John 8:58; 20:28). But how could Jesus be God while on earth if He left His deity aside to become man?
Phil 1:22 – Was Paul considering suicide?
Problem: Some critics point out that Paul was considering suicide, while he was imprisoned. He was considering whether or not to “choose” death (v.22). By making this a choice, critics argue that this implies suicide. Is this the case?
Eph 6:12 – Are the rulers and authorities human institutions or demonic institutions?
Problem: Paul writes, “For our struggle is not against flesh and blood, but against the rulers, against the powers, against the world forces of this darkness, against the spiritual forces of wickedness in the heavenly places” (Eph. 6:12). Some scholars claim that these words (“rulers” “powers” “world forces”) actually refer to human authorities—not demonic beings. Is this the case?
Eph 5:22-24 – Was Paul a sexist?
Problem: Critics of the Bible have argued that Scripture is chauvinistic toward women. For instance, critical scholar Peter Richardson writes, “The goal in Paul’s exegesis appears to be, without I hope being unduly harsh, greater conformity with the… view of subordination of women.”[1] While this might sound harsh, the Bible has very difficult passages toward women. For instance, Peter writes, “Wives [should] be submissive to your own husbands” (1 Pet. 3:1). Elsewhere, Paul writes, “The man is the head of a woman” (1 Cor. 11:3), and he states, “Wives, submit yourselves unto your own husbands, as unto the Lord. For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body Therefore as the church is subject unto Christ, so let the wives be to their own husbands in every thing. (Eph. 5:22-24). Is this a sexist attitude toward women? Critics argue that this is ancient patriarchy at its worst.
Religion has never been kind toward women Continue reading →
Eph 6:5-9 – Does the Bible support slavery?
Problem: Does the Bible support slavery? Skeptics of the Bible often claim that it does. For instance, in their book What the Bible Really Says, skeptics Morton Smith and R. Joseph Hoffman write,
There is no reasonable doubt that the New Testament, like the Old, not only tolerated chattel slavery (the form prevalent in the Greco-Roman world of Paul’s time) but helped to perpetuate it by making the slaves’ obedience to their masters a religious duty. This biblical morality was one of the greatest handicaps that the emancipation movement in the United States had to overcome.[1]
How should believers respond to such claims? Does the Bible support slavery?
Eph 5:5-6 – Is Paul teaching works here?
Problem: Paul writes, “For this you know with certainty, that no immoral or impure person or covetous man, who is an idolater, has an inheritance in the kingdom of Christ and God. 6 Let no one deceive you with empty words, for because of these things the wrath of God comes upon the sons of disobedience” (Eph. 5:5-6). Does this passage teach that Christians will be sent to hell for living an immoral lifestyle?
Eph 4:26—Is anger a sin or not?
Problem: On the one hand, the Bible seems to approve of anger, saying, “be angry” (Eph. 4:26). On the other hand, the Bible seems to disapprove of it, listing it as one of the “works of the flesh” (Gal. 5:19–20).
