Problem:

How many children did Abraham have, one or two?Genesis 22:2, Hebrews 11:17, and Galatians 4:22 tell us different things.  What about Ishmael and Isaac?  Aren’t they both the children of Abraham?

Solution:

Abraham had one son Genesis 22:2, “And He said, ‘Take now your son, your only son, whom you love, Isaac, and go to the land of Moriah; and offer him there as a burnt offering on one of the mountains of which I will tell you.’”
Hebrews 11:17, “By faith Abraham, when he was tested, offered up Isaac; and he who had received the promises was offering up his only begotten son.”
Abraham had two sons Galatians 4:22, “For it is written that Abraham had two sons, one by the bondwoman and one by the free woman.”
The answer to this apparent contradiction is found in understanding the typological representation of Isaac, Abraham’s second-born son, as a type of Christ. Abraham had Ishmael by the handmaiden Hagar. But Isaac was the child of promise, not Ishmael: “But God said to Abraham, ‘Do not be distressed because of the lad and your maid; whatever Sarah tells you, listen to her, for through Isaac your descendants shall be named,’” (Gen. 21:12).

If you look at the chart below, you will see the similarities between Isaac and Jesus. In other words, Isaac was a prophetic representation of Jesus. This is why Jesus said, “Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he saw it and was glad,” (John 8:56). Abraham had, in a very real sense, seeing the gospel presentation in the offering of his son, his “only begotten.” So, we see here that the term “only begotten” is in reference to the unique son of God and Isaac was acting out the sacrifice of Christ, prophetically.

Also, Abraham had six other sons besides Ishmael and Isaac through his wife Keturah whom he married after Sarah died. “Now Abraham took another wife, whose name was Keturah. 2 And she bore to him Zimran and Jokshan and Medan and Midian and Ishbak and Shuah,” (Gen. 25:1-2). Obviously, this was known by the writers of Genesis as well as Hebrews and Galatians.

“By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten son, (Heb 11:17)”

Problem: The writer of Hebrews informs us here that Abraham “went out, not knowing where he was going.” Yet Genesis 12:5 asserts that Abraham “departed to go to the land of Canaan.”
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Problem: Did anyone ascend into heaven before Jesus or not? Several biblical passages mention people who were caught up into heaven. Yet, Jesus argues in John three that no one had ascended into heaven. So which is it? Did anyone ascend into heaven before Jesus?

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Problem: Leviticus 17:11 affirmed that God gave blood sacrifices “to make atonement” for our souls. But Hebrews seems to contradict that, insisting that the Aaronic priest “stands ministering daily and offering repeatedly the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins” (10:11).
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Problem: Psalm 40:6 cites the Messiah as saying “My ears You have opened,” but the writer of Hebrews quotes it as “a body You have prepared for Me” (10:5). There is no similarity whatsoever in these quotations. The NT seems to totally distort this OT passage.
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Problem: Hebrews reads, “Therefore, when He comes into the world, He says, ‘Sacrifice and offering you have not desired, but a body you have prepared for me’” (Heb. 10:5). However, when we flip back to the original reference, we read, “Sacrifice and meal offering You have not desired; My ears You have opened” (Ps. 40:6). Critics claim that the author is blatantly twisting this verse.
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Problem: Orthodox Jewish interpreters often argue that the NT authors often overemphasize the importance of blood sacrifices in the OT. In particular, the author of Hebrews writes, “Without shedding of blood there is no forgiveness” (Heb. 9:22). Is this true, or does the OT offer other means of forgiveness besides blood sacrifice?
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Problem: This passage claims that the ark of the covenant had the golden bowl of manna, Aaron’s rod that budded, and the two tables of stone. But elsewhere it affirms that only the tables of stone were there (Ex. 40:20; Deut. 10:5; 1 Kings 8:9). Which is correct?
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Problem: According to Exodus 30:6 (cf. 26:33; 40:3), the altar of incense was in the Holy Place in front of the veil, not in the Most Holy Place behind the veil. However, Hebrews 9:3–4 states that it was “behind the … veil, [in] the part of the tabernacle which is called the Holiest of all.”
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Problem: The author of Hebrews writes, “He said, ‘A new covenant,’ He has made the first obsolete but whatever is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to disappear” (Heb. 8:13). This Scriptural citation comes from Jeremiah 31:31-36, which is addressed to Israel and speaks of the messianic kingdom. Amillennial interpreters claim that this passage demonstrates that the church replaces the old covenant with a new covenant.
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Problem: Christ is presented here as the “High Priest” of believers (cf. 7:21). However, later Jesus is depicted as the “sacrifice” for our sins (Heb. 9:26, 28; 10:10). Which is He?
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Problem: The psalmist declared that the “law of the Lord is perfect” (Ps. 19:7). It reflects the very character of God (cf. Lev. 11:45). Yet the writer of Hebrews insists that “the law made nothing perfect” (7:19), and thus God brought in a “better covenant” (v. 22). This, he contends, would not have been necessary “if that first covenant had been faultless” (Heb. 8:7). So, who is right? Is the law perfect or imperfect?
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