Problem: Peter says that “the Gospel was preached also to those who are dead.” This appears to claim that people have a chance to be saved after they die. But this runs into conflict with Hebrews 9:27, which insists that “it is appointed for men to die once, but after this the judgment.”
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1 Peter 4:1 – Can Christians gain sinless perfection?
Problem: Peter writes, “Because he who has suffered in the flesh has ceased from sin” (1 Pet. 4:1). Does Peter really believe that Christians can reach a state of sinless perfection?
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1 Peter 3:21 – Are we saved by faith or by baptism?
Problem:
Are we saved from our sins by faith or by faith and baptism? Though the Bible says that baptism is a very important part of the Christian life, it is not necessary for salvation. The truth is that we are saved by faith alone in Christ alone. Let’s take a look at scriptures used for both sides.
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1 Peter 3:19 – Does Peter support the view that a person can be saved after he dies?
Problem: First Peter 3:19 says that, after His death, Christ “went and preached to the spirits in prison.” But the Bible also says that “it is appointed for men to die once, but after this the judgment” (Heb. 9:27). These two verses appear to teach mutually opposing positions.
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1 Peter 3:18 – Was Jesus raised in the Spirit or in a physical body?
Problem: Peter declares that Christ was “put to death in the flesh but made alive in the spirit” (nasb). This seems to imply that Jesus did not rise in the flesh, but only in His spirit, which conflicts with Jesus’ statement that His resurrection body was “flesh and bones” (Luke 24:39).
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1 Peter 3:15 – Why does Peter command believers to reason about their faith when the Bible says elsewhere to simply believe?
Problem: Over and over again the Scriptures insist that one should simply believe in God (cf. John 3:16; Acts 16:31). Hebrews declares that “without faith it is impossible to please God” (Heb. 11:6). Paul contended that, “the world through wisdom did not know God” (1 Cor. 1:21). Yet Peter here instructs believers to “defend” and give a “reason” for their faith. Aren’t faith and reason opposed?
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1 Peter 3:7 – Does Peter think that women are inferior to men?
Problem: Peter writes that women are “someone weaker” (1 Pet. 3:7). Is Peter speaking in a derogatory or condescending sense here? Did Peter believe that women were inferior to men?
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1 Peter 3:6 – When did Sarah obey Abraham in the OT?
Problem: Peter writes, “Sarah obeyed Abraham, calling him lord” (1 Pet. 3:6). Some interpreters argue that this refers to Sarah obeying Abraham, when he chose to lie and have her sleep with the Egyptian Pharaoh (Gen. 12:13) and later to Abimelech (Gen. 20:5, 13). Some interpreters argue that we should submit to authority—even if it means sinning against God (i.e. committing adultery). Is this the case?
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1 Peter 3:3 – Does this mean that women should not wear makeup and jewelry?
Problem: Peter writes, “Your adornment must not be merely external—braiding the hair, and wearing gold jewelry, or putting on dresses” (1 Pet. 3:3). Some of the early church fathers (e.g. Tertullian and Cyprian)[1] and modern day Seventh-Day Adventists have used this passage to argue that women should never wear jewelry or makeup (c.f. 1 Tim. 2:9-10; Isa. 3:16-24). Is this the case?
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1 Peter 2:16 – Are we saved by grace or works?
Problem:
Many people in false religions teach that salvation and forgiveness of sins are obtained by faith and good works. Many appeal to Scripture to support this idea. But, when these verses are examined in context, they do not teach that works of any kind save us. In fact, the Bible clearly teaches that were saved without the works of the law. This is because nobody can keep the Law perfectly. God requires holiness (1 Pet. 1:16), nothing less.
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1 Peter 3:1 – Was Peter a sexist pig?
Problem: Peter writes, “In the same way, you wives, be submissive to your own husbands” (1 Pet. 3:1). Elsewhere, Paul writes, “The man is the head of a woman” (1 Cor. 11:3), and he states, “Wives, be subject to your own husbands” (Eph. 5:22). Is this a sexist attitude toward women? Critics argue that this is ancient patriarchy at its worst.
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1 Peter 2:13 – Shall we obey God’s Law or human law?
Problem:
Shall we obey God’s Law or human law? The Bible tells us to do both, but is that a contradiction? Acts 5:29 and Romans 13:1; I Peter 2:13
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1 Peter 2:12 – Should or should we not let our good works be seen?
Problem:
As with any piece of literature, to best understand its statements you must read them in context. The Bible is no different. Matthew 5:16 is in the context of the beatitudes (Matt. 5:1 – 7:29) where Jesus is teaching proper, good, and moral behavior. Disciples of Jesus are to light; that is, doers of good. 1 Peter 2:12 is where Peter is admonishing the Christians to live godly and holy lives before the unbelievers. We Christians live in the world among unbelievers and they are going to see how we live. Peter is telling us to act properly with unbelievers so that false accusations will not stand against us because we have lived with integrity among them.
1 Peter 2:9 – Is our mission “singing and praise” or “evangelism?”
Problem: The NIV translates this passage in the following way: “You may declare the praises [Greek aretē] of him who called you out of darkness into his wonderful light.” Some Christians claim that this is warrant for a large, corporate worship service (i.e. “praising” God). One commentator writes, “This heraldic praise is their reason for existing.”[1] Is this the case?
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1 Peter 2:8 – Does this passage teach that some people are “appointed” to hell?
Problem: Peter writes, “They stumble because they are disobedient to the word, and to this doom they were also appointed” (1 Pet. 2:8). Does this passage teach that God creates people with the express purpose of sending them to hell?
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