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Problem: In the Kyle Butt/Dan Barker debate, Dan Barker alleged that He “knows” the God of the Bible cannot exist because “there are mutually incompatible properties/characteristics of the God that’s in this book [the Bible—EL] that rule out the possibility of His existence” (2009). One of the supposed contradictions that Barker mentioned was that God claims invisibility, yet has been seen. (His assertion is found 10 minutes and 55 seconds into his first speech.) Since biblical passages such as Exodus 33:20-23, John 1:18, and 1 John 4:12 teach that God cannot be seen, while other scriptures indicate that man has seen God and spoken to him “face to face” (Exodus 33:11; Genesis 32:30), allegedly “the God of the Bible does not exist.
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Problem: Some argue that the Bible contradicts itself on whether a person can see God face-to-face—but all biblical data should be considered (in context) before leveling that charge.

I am taking an online class at DTS (Dallas Theological Seminary) on the book Of Revelation and I want to share this with everyone. In chapter 1 of revelation verse 4-5, I can see the trinity laid out in these verse.
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Problem: John refers to Jesus as “the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father” (Jn. 1:18). Does this imply that Jesus was a created being?

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Problem: If Jesus is God’s “only begotten Son,” then how can angels and Christians also be God’s sons?
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Problem: Skeptics and Bible critics frequently accuse the Bible of containing discrepancies and contradictions that, if true, would militate against its being the inspired Word of God. One such instance centers on two passages in the New Testament that deal with Christ’s resurrection.
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Problem: The Jewish Bible is divided into three sections—the Law, the Prophets, and the Writings. Many believe that Jesus is alluding to this threefold division in the phrase “the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms.” However, the standard NT way of referring to the entire OT by Jesus and the NT writers was by the phrase “the Law and the Prophets” (cf. Matt. 5:17; Luke 24:27). Which is correct?

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Problem: I occasionally receive questions about whether Luke 24:37–43 introduces a Bible contradiction. In this passage, Jesus said that a spirit (or as some versions state, “a ghost”) does not have flesh and blood, and then he proved that he had flesh and blood by asking them to look at and touch him. To further demonstrate his physical presence, he ate broiled fish. But is there really an apparent contradiction, or are we just looking at a misunderstanding caused by modern conceptions of the terms? Before we discuss the alleged contradiction, let’s look at the two key verses (verses 37 and 39) in different English translations.
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Problem: Three times in the gospel of Matthew, the writer recorded where certain disciples of Jesus were instructed to meet the Lord in Galilee after His resurrection. During the Passover meal that Jesus ate the night of His betrayal, He informed His disciples, saying, “After I have been raised, I will go before you to Galilee” (Matthew 26:32). Three days later, on the day of Jesus’ resurrection when Mary Magdalene and the other women came to the empty tomb of Jesus, Matthew recorded how an angel told them to notify the disciples of Jesus’ resurrection, and to tell them exactly the same thing they were told three days earlier: “He is going before you into Galilee; there you will see Him” (28:7). Then, only three verses later, as the women were on their way to inform the disciples of Jesus’ resurrection and the message given to them by the angel, Matthew recorded how Jesus appeared to them and said: “Rejoice!… Do not be afraid. Go and tell My brethren to go to Galilee, and there they will see Me” (28:9-10). Sometime thereafter, “the eleven disciples went away into Galilee, to the mountain which Jesus had appointed for them,” and “worshipped Him” (28:16).
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Problem: Did Jesus first appear to the eleven disciples on a mountain in Galilee or in Jerusalem behind closed doors?