Problem: Luke states that the census decreed by Augustus was the first one taken while Quirinius was governor of Syria. However, Quirinius did not become governor of Syria until after the death of Herod in about a.d. 6. Is this an error in Luke’s historical record?
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Luke 2:1 -Did Luke make a mistake when he mentioned a worldwide census under Caesar Augustus?
Problem: Luke refers to a worldwide census under Caesar Augustus when Quirinius was governor of Syria. However, according to the annals of ancient history, no such census took place.
Luke 1:80 – Was John the Baptist an Essene?
Problem: Luke records that John the Baptist “lived in the deserts until the day of his public appearance to Israel” (Lk. 1:80). Since he was somewhat of a recluse, some scholars argue that John the Baptist was an Essene, living out on the periphery of society. Is this the case?
Luke 1:46 – Was Mary born sinless as Roman Catholics claim?
Problem: Roman Catholics claim that Mary the mother of Jesus was immaculately conceived (i.e., conceived without sin). However, with the exception of Christ, the Bible asserts that every human being is born in sin (Ps. 51:5; Rom. 5:12). Was Mary immaculately conceived?
Luke 1:42 – Was Mary sinless?
Problem: Roman Catholic scholars argue that Mary was sinless, because she was referred to as “blessed” in this passage. Moreover, the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception (i.e. the sinlessness of Mary) was declared by Pope Pius IX in 1854. Was Mary sinless or not?
Luke1:28 – Does this passage support the Roman Catholic view of the sinlessness of Mary
Problem: Upon seeing Mary, the angel Gabriel says, “Mary, full of grace.” (Lk. 1:28; Douay-Rheims). Roman Catholic authorities claim that this supports the notion that Mary was sinless. Is this the case?
Luke 1:28 – Should Christians worship Mary?
Problem: The angel said Mary was the most blessed of all women, declaring to her, “Rejoice, highly favored one, the Lord is with you; blessed are you among women!” (Luke 1:28) Although the highest form of worship is reserved for God alone (latria), Roman Catholics believe that Mary should be venerated in a lesser sense (hyperdulia) as the most highly favored above all other creatures since she is the “Mother of God” and “Queen of Heaven.” Why do Protestants not give Mary her proper due?
Luke 1:27 – How could Elizabeth be related to Mary when she was from the tribe of Aaron?
Problem: According to Luke 1:5, Elizabeth was from the priestly tribe of Aaron. But here in Luke 1:36 she is described as a relative of Mary, who was from the tribe of Judah (1:39; 3:30).
Luke 1:26-27 – Was the announcement of the birth of Christ made to Mary or to Joseph?
Problem: Matthew says the announcement of Jesus’ birth was made to Joseph (Matt. 1:20), but Luke asserts that it was made to Mary (Luke 1:26ff). Who is correct?
Luke 1:6 – How can Zacharias and Elizabeth be righteous, if none are righteous?
Problem: Luke writes that Zacharias and Elizabeth were “righteous in the sight of God, walking blamelessly in all the commandments and requirements of the Lord” (Lk. 1:6). However, the rest of the Bible teaches that none are righteous (Rom. 3:10, 23).
Luke 1:5-6 – Have all people sinned or not?
Have all people sinned or not? The Bible seems to suggest that some people never sinned. So, what is the answer?
Mk. 16:9-20 – What happened to the end of Mark? Is this section Scripture or a scribal addition?
Textual critics argue over the ending of Mark. Some argue for the longer ending (LE) and others for the shorter ending (SE). The LE extends the gospel to 16:20, while the SE stops at 16:8. Is Mark 16:9-20 a later scribal insertion, or was it written by Mark? Mark 16:9-20 was a later scribal addition. We hold this view for several reasons:
Mark 16:12 – Did Jesus appear in different bodies after His resurrection?
Problem: According to Mark, Jesus appeared here in “another form.” From this, some argue that after the resurrection Jesus assumed different bodies on different occasions, but did not have the same continuously physical body He had before the Resurrection. But this is contrary to the orthodox understanding of the Resurrection, as is indicated by many other verses (see comments on Luke 24:34).
Mark 16:9-20 – Is the ending of Mark really scripture?
There is a dispute over Mark 16:9-20 and whether or not it should be included in the New Testament. It is found in many old manuscripts but is omitted in two of the earliest complete copies of the Bible, known as the Vaticanus (350 AD) and Sinaiticus (375 AD). Additionally, there is another ending to Mark in some old manuscripts that is substituted for 9-20. The alternate ending reads as follows:
Mark 16:9–20 – Why is this passage of Scripture omitted in some Bibles?
Problem: Most modern Bibles contain this ending of the Gospel of Mark, including the kjv, asv, nasb, and the nkjv. However, both the rsv and the niv set it off from the rest of the text. A note in the niv says, “Most reliable early manuscripts and other ancient witnesses do not have Mark 16:9–20.” Were these verses in the original Gospel of Mark?
