petra1000

I am a born again christian who loves the Lord and I am taking bible classes online
I am a born again christian who loves the Lord and I am taking bible classes online

Rom 5:20 – Is Paul saying that the Law makes us want to sin more?

Problem: Paul writes, “The Law came in so that the transgression would increase” (Rom. 5:20). This seems to imply that the Law actually caused us to sin more. However, many commentators disagree:

Everett Harrison writes, “The law also serves to restrain evil in the world.”[1] [Citing Romans 6:15 and 1 Timothy 1:9-11]

F.F. Bruce writes, “Law increased the trespass by providing opportunities for violating a multiplicity of specific commandments.”[2]

Grant Osborne writes, “The point is not so much an increase in the number of sins but in the seriousness of sin. The law showed people that moral sin transgresses the laws of God.”[3]

Douglas Moo argues that this verse refers to greater judgment for sin: “As we commented on verse 4:15, Paul believes that the Mosaic law, by making people accountable to a specific and detailed series of commandments, brings greater judgment on those sins.”[4]

Does this passage teach that the Law causes us to sin more or less?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

Rom 5:19 – If all are made righteous by Christ why aren’t all saved?

Problem: It is agreed by scholars that in Paul’s contrast between the “one” and the “many” here, that “many” means all. For the “many” were “made sinners” by the “one” (Adam’s) sin, and Paul had already concluded that “all have sinned [in Adam]” a few verses earlier (Rom. 5:12). But if all were “made sinners” means all actually became sinners, then why doesn’t all “will be made righteous” in the same verse mean that all will be saved? (Rom. 5:19)

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

Rom 5:15-19 – Is Paul saying that everyone will be forgiven in the end?

Problem: Universalists argue that Adam’s sin affected everyone on Earth, and Jesus’ work on the Cross will also make everyone righteous. After all, Paul writes, “As through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men. For as through the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous” (Rom. 5:18-19). Does this mean that all people will be saved in the end?\

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

Rom 5:14 – Is it fair to judge all people because of Adam’s sin?

Problem: Death came to all people because of the sin of Adam (Rom. 5:12), but Romans 5:14 says, “Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not sinned according to the likeness of the transgression of Adam.” But, if they did not sin like Adam, why are they held accountable?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

Rom 5:8 – Does God hate people or love them?

The Bible tells us that God both loves people and hates people. Whether we like it or not the Scriptures teach that God hates those who love violence and love evil. God is too holy to approve of those who love what is opposite to God’s character and nature. But on the other hand, generically speaking, God loves the whole world (John 3:16). Also, he lets the sun shine on the good and the bad. He let’s the rain fall upon all people. So, in this context, he loves all (Matthew 5:43-48).

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

Rom 5:1 – Are we saved by faith or by baptism?

Are we saved from our sins by faith or by faith and baptism?  Though the Bible says that baptism is a very important part of the Christian life, it is not necessary for salvation.  The truth is that we are saved by faith alone in Christ alone.  Let’s take a look at scriptures used for both sides.

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

Rom 5:1 – Do we have justification in the past tense, or are we supposed to seek justification in the future tense?

Problem: Textual critics debate which manuscripts to prefer in Romans 5:1. One set prefers the indicative mood (“we have”), while others prefer the subjunctive mood (“let us have”). Some of our manuscripts use the Greek term echōmen (subjunctive), which means “let us have.” Others contain echomen (indicative), which means “we have.” The subjunctive reading exists in the Byzantine Text, Codex Sinaiticus, Codex Alexandrinus, Codex Bezae, and others. The difference between the two is a single letter in Greek. To add to the confusion, the church fathers quote both versions. Which should we prefer?

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Posted by petra1000

What is wrong with our churches today?

The following applies to professing Christians in The West

The Bible

63% – God is not the provider of truth and the Bible cannot be trusted to fully

represent God-given principles

13% – Read their Bible regularly [which means 87% are open to man’s interptation]

41-43% – consider scripture to be “accurate in its teaching”

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Posted by petra1000 in Apologetics, Bible Study, Bible Teaching, Church

Rom 3:25 – What does “propitiation” mean? (pronounced pro-PISH-ee-ae-shun)

This comes from the Greek word hilastērion (pronounced hill-iss-TARE-ee-on), which some translations render “propitiation” (NASB). In pagan culture, people would offer vegetables, animals, and even human sacrifices to propitiate the wrath of the gods. If you were going on a sea voyage, you would offer propitiation to the god Poseidon, asking him to be propitious of your voyage. If the offering wasn’t good enough, your boat would get into a wreck. Because this word was used by pagans, Christian translators tried to translate it differently: Continue reading →

Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

Rom 3:22 – Is this verse about the “faithfulness OF Jesus” or is it about “our faith IN Jesus”?

Problem: Greek grammarians debate whether or not this passage should be rendered as “faith in Jesus Christ” or “the faithfulness of Jesus Christ.” The first rendering is the objective genitive (“faith in”), while the second rendering is the subjective genitive (“faithfulness of”). Which is it?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching