Problem: God hardened Pharaoh’s heart. Is that right?
Romans 9:17-18, “For the Scripture says to Pharaoh, ‘For this very purpose I raised you up, to demonstrate My power in you, and that My name might be proclaimed throughout the whole earth.’ 18 So then He has mercy on whom He desires, and He hardens whom He desires.”
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Rom 9:17—How can Pharaoh be free if God hardened his heart?
Problem: God said to Pharaoh, “For this very purpose I raised you up, to demonstrate my power in you, and that my name might be proclaimed throughout the whole earth” (Rom. 9:17, nasb). In fulfillment of this, it says that God hardened Pharaoh’s heart (Ex. 4:21; cf. Ex. 7:3). But if God raised up Pharaoh and even hardened his heart to accomplish His divine purposes, then isn’t Pharaoh exempt from responsibility for his actions? Continue reading →
Rom 9:13 – Does God “hate” unborn babies?
Problem: Citing Malachi 1:2-3, Paul writes, “Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated” (Rom. 9:13). Does God hate unborn babies?
Rom 9:5 – Does this passage support the deity of Christ?
Problem: Paul writes, “From whom is the Christ according to the flesh, who is over all, God blessed forever” (Rom. 9:5). Is this referring to Jesus being God?
Rom 9:3 – Does Paul really want to go to hell, so that his Jewish friends could go to heaven?
Problem: Paul states that he would want to be “accursed,” so that his Jewish friends could know the love of Christ. What is going on in this passage?
Rom 8:36 – Why does Paul quote Psalm 44:22?
Problem: Psalm 44 begins with the psalmist recounting God’s faithfulness with Israel in the past (vv.1-8). But then the psalmist points out that God has allowed his people to be thrown into exile and judgment (vv.9-16). This makes the psalmist wonder how they could be suffering, if they have remained so faithful to God (v.17-21). It is in this context that the psalmist writes, “But for Your sake we are killed all day long; we are considered as sheep to be slaughtered” (v.22). It ends with a plea to God to rescue them from their enemies.
Rom 8:29-30 – Is this passage teaching predestination?
Problem: Calvinistic interpreters argue that Paul is teaching predestination and irresistible grace in this passage. Is this the case?
Rom 8:26-27 – Does this refer to speaking in tongues?
Problem: Paul writes, “In the same way the Spirit also helps our weakness; for we do not know how to pray as we should, but the Spirit Himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words; 27 and He who searches the hearts knows what the mind of the Spirit is, because He intercedes for the saints according to the will of God” (Rom. 8:26-27). Pentecostal theologians hold that this refers to speaking in tongues. Is this the case?
Rom 8:26 – Is the Holy Spirit our mediator or is Christ?
Problem: First Timothy 2:5 asserts that “there is one … Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus.” But Romans 8:26 informs us that the Holy Spirit intercedes for us to God “with groanings which cannot be uttered.” How can Christ be the only mediator when the Holy Spirit also mediates?
Romans 8:3—Was Jesus actually in human flesh or only in its likeness?
Problem: Paul asserts that Jesus was made “in the likeness of sinful flesh,” but he does not assert that Jesus is human flesh. Yet the Bible speaks repeatedly of Jesus being incarnated in human flesh, that is, of being truly human, not just like a human.
Rom 8:1 – Is there condemnation or not?
Problem: Most translations of this verse read: “Therefore, there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus.” But, the KJV (and the NKJV) read: “There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.” The KJV seems to imply that our condemnation is conditional based on our spiritual walk. Which is true?
Rom 7:14-25 – Is Paul describing his own personal struggle with sin?
Problem: Many interpreters do not believe Paul is referring to his own present struggle with sin here. Dunn writes, “Most interpreters now also agree that it would be a mistake to treat the passage autobiographically and to look for matching stages in Paul’s own experience.”[1] Douglas Moo writes that “most Pauline scholars think that Paul describes his life as a Jew under the law.”[2] He continues, “We adopt the… view, that Paul is describing his life as a Jew under the law, before he came to Christ.”[3] Other interpreters believe that Paul is referring to his own personal struggle with sin. Which is a better interpretation?
Rom 7:8-13 – Is Paul describing himself here, or something (or someone) else?
Problem: Commentators disagree over the fact that Paul is referring to himself during spiritual growth here. We have already argued that Romans 7:6 refers to sanctification—not justification (see comments on Rom. 7:6). After Paul came to Christ, he must have fallen back under his old ways of trying to go back under the Law. As a former Pharisee, this would have been a real challenge for Paul. When he fell back under the Law for his spiritual growth, this didn’t bring growth; it brought death.
Rom 7:6 – In what sense are Christians “released from the Law”?
Problem: Some interpreters believe that the Law is helpful for spiritual growth for Christians. For instance, Reformed theologian Louis Berkhof writes, “The law serves the purpose of restraining sin and promoting righteousness. Considered from this point of view, the law presupposes sin and is necessary on account of sin. It serves the purpose of God’s common grace in the world at large… The law is a rule of life for believers, reminding them of their duties and leading them in the way of life and salvation. This third use of the law is denied by the Antinomians.”[1]
Continue reading →
Rom 7:1-3 – Why does Paul compare the Law to marriage?
Problem: Some interpreters claim that the Law died, so we aren’t under the law anymore.
