Month: November 2021

1 Cor 16:2 – Do we have to meet on Sunday for church?

Problem: Paul writes, “On the first day of every week [Sunday] each one of you is to put aside and save, as he may prosper, so that no collections be made when I come” (1 Cor. 16:2). Does this mean that Christians are mandated to meet on Sunday morning for church? Is it biblically permissible to meet on another day of the week?

Solution: The NT does not command us to meet on Sundays or any other day of the week. While there are some examples of Christians meeting on Sundays in the early church, these are descriptions –not prescriptions. That is, while we have examples of Sunday meetings, we do not have imperatives or commands for this anywhere in the NT. Moreover, we even have examples of Bible studies occurring on Saturdays, during the Jewish Sabbath (Acts 13:13-14; 16:13; 17:2). We do find an example of Paul breaking bread and teaching on a Sunday in Troas (Acts 20:7), but this was actually a nighttime meeting (“He prolonged his message until midnight.”). This wouldn’t fit with the traditional paradigm (meeting until midnight?). Therefore, these NT examples should not be binding to us. In fact, other NT examples demonstrate that we should meet “daily” (Acts 2:46 NIV).

In addition, the NT explicitly teaches that no days are specifically holy. Paul writes, “One person regards one day above another, another regards every day alike. Each person must be fully convinced in his own mind” (Rom. 14:5). In other words, these are negotiable issues –not morally objective ones. Elsewhere, Paul explicitly writes, “Therefore no one is to act as your judge in regard to… a Sabbath day” (Col. 2:16). Paul even admonishes the legalism of the Galatians, because they were observing “days and months and seasons and years” (Gal. 4:10). Jesus himself taught that he was “Lord even of the Sabbath” (Mk. 2:28; c.f. Lk. 6:5).

1 Corinthians 16:2 does explicitly speak about “the first day of every week,” but this is not referring to a church service. When we consider the context, Paul’s primary purpose was financial giving –not church meetings. Even if this was a church service, this is not at the heart of Paul’s command. Instead, he is commanding them to set aside their money; he is not telling them when to meet together. This would be twisting the spirit of this passage.


“Upon the first day of the week let every one of you lay by him in store, as God hath prospered him, that there be no gatherings when I come.
(1 Cor 16:2)”

Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

1 Cor. 15:52 – The last trumpet?

Problem: Paul writes, “In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trumpet; for the trumpet will sound, and the dead will be raised imperishable, and we will be changed” (1 Cor. 15:52). Advocates of a post-tribulational rapture argue that this aligns with the last trumpet in the book of Revelation. Is this the case?

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1 Cor 15:50 – If flesh and blood cannot enter heaven, then how can there be a physical resurrection?

Problem: The Bible speaks of the resurrection of the physical body from the grave (John 5:28–29), which is composed of “flesh and bones” (Luke 24:39) and which leaves an empty tomb behind (Matt. 28:6). However, according to this verse, “flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God.”

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1 Cor 15:37 – Is Paul teaching that the resurrection body is a different one from the one that is sown—a kind of reincarnation?

Problem: According to this verse, we “do not sow that body that shall be.” Some take this to mean the resurrection body is a different one, a “spiritual” (v. 44) body that is not essentially material (see comments on 1 Cor. 15:44). Does this prove that we are not raised in the same physical body of flesh and bones in which we die?

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1 Cor 15:29 – Is baptism for the dead really Christian?

Just north of Corinth was a city named Eleusis. This was the location of a pagan religion where baptism in the sea was practiced to guarantee a good afterlife. This religion was mention by Homer in Hymn to Demeter 478-79.1  The Corinthians were known to be heavily influenced by other customs. After all, they were in a large economic area where a great many different people frequented. It is probable that the Corinthians were being influenced by the religious practices found at Eleusis where baptism for the dead was practiced.

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1 Cor 15:29 – What is baptism for the dead?

CLAIM: Paul writes, “Otherwise, what will those do who are baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why then are they baptized for them?” (1 Cor. 15:29). Mormon theologians argue that this supports the practice of baptism for the dead. Is this the case?

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1 Cor 15:29 – Doesn’t advocating baptism for the dead contradict Paul’s teaching that each person must believe individually?

Problem: Paul said, “what will they do who are baptized for the dead?” This seems to imply that if a person gets baptized on the account of a dead person, then the deceased will be saved. But, this is in conflict with the clear teaching of Scripture that anyone old enough must believe for himself or herself (John 3:16; Rom. 10:9–13; cf. Ezek. 18:20) to be saved.

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1 cor 15:22 – Do the sons bear the sins of the fathers or not?

Problem: In one area of Scripture, it appears that a son will bear the sins of his father, yet in other areas, it seems that that is not the case. So which is it? The answer lies, as always, in examining the context of the statements. Ultimately, the Bible has no internal contradiction. It just takes looking and reading to figure things out.

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

1 Cor 15:10 – Was Paul’s boasting contrary to Scripture?

Problem: Paul boasted here when he declared, “I labored more abundantly than they all.” In 2 Corinthians 11:16, Paul even admitted that he was bragging, claiming that none of the other apostles had anything on him (cf. 2 Cor. 12:11). But Paul himself admitted that boasting was wrong and “that no flesh should glory in His presence” (1 Cor. 1:29). And Proverbs exhorts, “Let another man praise you, and not your own mouth” (Prov. 27:2).

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1 Cor 15:5–8 – Why did Jesus appear to only a select few?

Problem: Some critics have suggested that the fact that only a few saw Jesus after His resurrection indicates that He was essentially invisible to the human eye, and only materialized to a few people on select occasions. But this is contrary to the orthodox contention that Jesus’ resurrection was literal and physical.

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching