Problem: Most people who have done much study from the synoptic gospels are aware that following the baptism of Jesus, He “then” (Matthew 4:1; Luke 4:1) “immediately” (Mark 1:12) was sent out by the Spirit into the wilderness where He fasted for forty days while being tempted by the devil. Skeptics likewise are “well informed” of this story. In fact, some skeptics presume to know about this time in Jesus’ life so well, they have argued that the apostle John contradicted the synoptic writers (see “Inerrancy;” “Contradictions;” Wells, 2001). Allegedly, John placed Jesus at the wedding in Cana of Galilee just three days following His baptism (John 1:19-2:1), whereas Mark indicated that Jesus went into the desert for forty days “immediately” following His baptism. Is this a real chronological contradiction, as some suppose?
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Problem: Some verses in the gospels seem to say that John the Baptist was Elijah, but others say he was not. Is this a contradiction? Let’s take a look:

1. Yes, he was Elijah: Matthew 11:13-14, “For all the prophets and the Law prophesied until John. 14 “And if you care to accept it, he himself is Elijah, who was to come.”
2. No, he was not Elijah: John 1:19-21, “And this is the witness of John, when the Jews sent to him priests and Levites from Jerusalem to ask him, “Who are you?” 20 And he confessed, and did not deny, and he confessed, “I am not the Christ.” 21 And they asked him, “What then? Are you Elijah?” And he said, “I am not.” “Are you the Prophet?” And he answered, “No.”

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Problem: In the Kyle Butt/Dan Barker debate, Dan Barker alleged that He “knows” the God of the Bible cannot exist because “there are mutually incompatible properties/characteristics of the God that’s in this book [the Bible—EL] that rule out the possibility of His existence” (2009). One of the supposed contradictions that Barker mentioned was that God claims invisibility, yet has been seen. (His assertion is found 10 minutes and 55 seconds into his first speech.) Since biblical passages such as Exodus 33:20-23, John 1:18, and 1 John 4:12 teach that God cannot be seen, while other scriptures indicate that man has seen God and spoken to him “face to face” (Exodus 33:11; Genesis 32:30), allegedly “the God of the Bible does not exist.
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Problem: Some argue that the Bible contradicts itself on whether a person can see God face-to-face—but all biblical data should be considered (in context) before leveling that charge.

I am taking an online class at DTS (Dallas Theological Seminary) on the book Of Revelation and I want to share this with everyone. In chapter 1 of revelation verse 4-5, I can see the trinity laid out in these verse.
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Problem: John refers to Jesus as “the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father” (Jn. 1:18). Does this imply that Jesus was a created being?

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Problem: If Jesus is God’s “only begotten Son,” then how can angels and Christians also be God’s sons?
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Problem: Skeptics and Bible critics frequently accuse the Bible of containing discrepancies and contradictions that, if true, would militate against its being the inspired Word of God. One such instance centers on two passages in the New Testament that deal with Christ’s resurrection.
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Problem: The Jewish Bible is divided into three sections—the Law, the Prophets, and the Writings. Many believe that Jesus is alluding to this threefold division in the phrase “the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms.” However, the standard NT way of referring to the entire OT by Jesus and the NT writers was by the phrase “the Law and the Prophets” (cf. Matt. 5:17; Luke 24:27). Which is correct?

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Problem: I occasionally receive questions about whether Luke 24:37–43 introduces a Bible contradiction. In this passage, Jesus said that a spirit (or as some versions state, “a ghost”) does not have flesh and blood, and then he proved that he had flesh and blood by asking them to look at and touch him. To further demonstrate his physical presence, he ate broiled fish. But is there really an apparent contradiction, or are we just looking at a misunderstanding caused by modern conceptions of the terms? Before we discuss the alleged contradiction, let’s look at the two key verses (verses 37 and 39) in different English translations.
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