John 17:3 – Is Jesus “the only true God” or only the Father?

Problem: John 17:1-5—“These things Jesus spoke, and lifted up his eyes to heaven and said, Father, the
hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son may glorify thee; as thou hast given him authority over
all flesh, that as to all that thou hast given to him, he should give them life eternal. And this is the
eternal life, that they should know thee, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom thou hast
sent. I have glorified thee on the earth, I have completed the work which thou gavest me that I should
do it; And now glorify me, thou Father, along with thyself, with the glory which I had along with
thee before the world was.”
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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

John 17:3 – “The Only True God”

Problem: The Bible is full of scriptures that, when quoted without any consideration of the immediate and remote contexts, a person can misuse in all sorts of ways. As proof that we do not have to work to provide for our family’s material needs, some may quote Jesus’ statement, “Do not labor for the food which perishes, but for the food which endures to everlasting life” (John 6:27). In order to show that Jesus was a liar, the Bible critic might quote Jesus’ acknowledgement: “If I bear witness of Myself, My witness is not true” (John 5:31). Those who exclude baptism from God’s plan of salvation often quote John 4:2: “Jesus Himself did not baptize, but His disciples.” When the Bible reader is “rightly dividing” (2 Timothy 2:15, NKJV) or “handling accurately the word of truth” (NASB), however, he will remember that “[t]he sum of thy [God’s] word is truth” (Psalm 119:160, emp. added). Since the Bible teaches “if anyone will not work, neither shall he eat” (2 Thessalonians 3:10; cf. 1 Timothy 5:8), Jesus never implied that working to help feed one’s family is wrong (John 6:27). “He simply was saying that spiritual food is more important than physical food, and as such, should be given a higher priority” (Butt, 2003, emp. in orig.). Jesus did not confess wrongdoing in John 5:31. He simply acknowledged that, in accordance with the law (cf. Deuteronomy 19:15), His testimony apart from other witnesses would be considered invalid or insufficient to establish truth (cf. John 8:13-20; see Lyons, 2004). Likewise, Jesus never taught that baptism was unnecessary for salvation. In fact, He taught the very opposite (cf. John 3:3,5; Mark 16:16; Matthew 28:18-20; see Lyons, 2003).
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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

John 16:5 – Does God deceive people?

Problem: Ezekiel states, “If a prophet is deceived into giving a message, it is because I, the Lord, have deceived that prophet. I will lift my fist against such prophets and cut them off from the community of Israel” (Ezek. 14:9 NLT).
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John 15:2,6 – Does this passage teach that believers will be sent to hell for not bearing fruit?

Problem: John writes, “Every branch in Me that does not bear fruit, He takes away…” (Jn. 15:2). Later he writes, “If anyone does not abide in Me, he is thrown away as a branch and dries up; and they gather them, and cast them into the fire and they are burned” If we do not bear fruit, does this mean that we are sent to hell?
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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

John 14:28 – For My Father Is Greater Than I

As a member of the Godhead, the Son of God shares all the attributes of deity. 

For example, the Lord Jesus is all powerful (Revelation 1:8 with 22:12-13).  It would be wrong to say that God the Father is more powerful than God the Son.  God has all power and He is almighty, and Jesus Christ is God.  Jesus Christ is all knowing (John 6:64; 16:30; Col. 2:3).  It would be wrong to say that God the Father has more knowledge than God the Son.  God is omniscient and Jesus Christ is God.  Names can be applied to Jesus Christ which are only applied to God.  For example, the name Jehovah (a name which refers solely to deity) is often applied to Jesus Christ.  It would be wrong to say that the name Jehovah applies to God the Father, but that it is never used in reference to Jesus Christ.
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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

John 14:28 – In What Way was God Greater than Jesus?

Problem: According to the apostle John, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God…. And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth” (John 1:1,14, emp. added). Unquestionably, this Word (God), Whom John claims became flesh, was Jesus Christ (1:17). This same apostle recorded other statements in his account of the Gospel that convey the same basic truth. He wrote how, on one occasion, Jesus told a group of hostile Jews, “I and My Father are one” (10:30). Later, he recorded how Jesus responded to Philip’s request to see God by saying, “He who has seen Me has seen the Father” (14:9). He even told about how Jesus accepted worship from a blind man whom He had healed (9:38; cf. Matthew 8:2). And, since only God is to be worshipped (Matthew 4:10), the implication is that Jesus believed He was God (cf. John 1:29,41,49; 20:28; Mark 14:62).
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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

John 14:27 – Did Jesus Come to Bring Peace—or Turmoil?

Problem: Militant, violent, religious extremists have caused legitimate concern for America’s security. In Palestine, on the very soil Jesus walked, people kill each other in warfare motivated by religion. Do the teachings of Christ authorize or encourage such behavior? In John 14:27, Jesus said: “Peace I leave with you, My peace I give to you; not as the world gives do I give to you. Let not your heart be troubled, neither let it be afraid.” Some have charged that Jesus’ promise of peace in that verse contradicts His message in Matthew 10:34: “Do not think that I came to bring peace on earth. I did not come to bring peace but a sword.” Did Jesus come to Earth to bring peace—or turmoil?
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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

John 14:16 – Does this passage predict the prophet Muhammad as Muslim apologists claim?

Problem: The Quran claims that Muhammad was predicted in the NT (Surah 7:157). Thus Muslim apologists argue that this passage is predicting Muhammad as the future prophet that would come after Jesus. “Ahmad” in Greek is periclytos, and some Muslim interpreters hold that this is the proper translation of the Greek word paraclete here. Is this the case?
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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

John 14:15 – Why does Jesus use the term “commandments” here?

Problem: Jesus says, “If you love Me, you will keep My commandments” (Jn. 14:15). Jesus refers to his “commands” (Jn. 14:21; 15:10; 15:12, 14, 17) throughout this section of Scripture. Why does Christ speak of his love in such impersonal terms as “keeping commandments”?
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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

John 14:1-3 – Does this passage support a pre-tribulational rapture?

Problem: Pre-tribulationists argue that Jesus hinted at the doctrine of the rapture in his word to the disciples:

(Jn. 14:1-3) “Do not let your heart be troubled; believe in God, believe also in Me. 2 In My Father’s house are many dwelling places; if it were not so, I would have told you; for I go to prepare a place for you. 3 If I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again and receive you to Myself, that where I am, there you may be also.”

Does this passage support a pre-tribulational rapture?
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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching