Matthew 1:23 – Did Isaiah really predict a virgin birth?

“Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us. (Matt 1:23)

The way the critics flock to this passage, we might think that it was a central prophecy of the NT! In reality, it is cited only once—here in Matthew (Mt. 1:23). And yet, Matthew had good reason for citing it. Let’s consider a number of criticisms hurled against this passage.

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Matthew 1:17—How many generations were listed between the captivity and Christ, 14 or 13?

“So all the generations from Abraham to David are fourteen generations; and from David until the carrying away into Babylon are fourteen generations; and from the carrying away into Babylon unto Christ are fourteen generations. (Matt 1:17)

Problem: Matthew says the generations “from the captivity in Babylon until the Christ are fourteen generations” (1:17). However, he lists only 13 names after the captivity is counted. So, which is correct, 13 or 14 ?

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Matthew 1:12 – Who is Shealtiel’s father? Jeconiah or Neri? (cf. Lk. 3:27)

“And after they were brought to Babylon, Jechonias begat Salathiel; and Salathiel begat Zorobabel; (Matt 1:12)”

Problem: Matthew and Luke both give different names for the father of Shealtiel.

Matthew: Jeconiah, Shealtiel, then Zerubbabel (Mt. 1:12).

Luke: Neri, Shealtiel, then Zerubbabel (Lk. 3:27).

Is this a contradiction?

 

Solution: There are two ways to solve this difficulty:

OPTION #1: These are different Shealtiel’s
Advocates of this view note that this was a common name at the time, and there are multiple repetitions of names in these genealogies (e.g. Joseph, Mattathias, Judah).

OPTION #2: This is the case of a Levirate marriage
1 Chronicles 3:17-19 states that Jeconiah was the father of Shealtiel and Pedaiah. But then the text says that Pedaiah’s son was also called Zerubbabel! But other passages state that Shealtiel was the father of Zerubbabel (Ezra 3:2; Neh. 12:1; Hag. 1:1). This shows that this could have been a case of levirate marriage (see Gen. 38:8-9; Deut. 25:5-10). A widow of a childless man could marry his brother. When the woman gave birth, he would carry on his deceased father’s name. This was the case so a man’s name could go on—even if he died prematurely. Michael Brown writes, “In the case of Zerubabbel, it would appear that his biological father was Pedaiah, the younger brother of Shealtiel who died childless. Pedaiah then married the widow of Shealtiel, in accordance with the laws of levirate marriage, and his firstborn son, Zerubabbel, was counted as the son of his deceased brother, Shealtiel, to ‘build up his brother’s family line’ (Deut. 25:9).”[1]

[1] Brown, Michael L. Answering Jewish Objections to Jesus: New Testament Objections. Grand Rapids, MI: Baker, 2006. 79.

Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Matthew 1:12 – How could Jesus be the Messiah, if God cursed the descendants of King Jehoiachin (Jer. 22:30)?

“And after they were brought to Babylon, Jechonias begat Salathiel; and Salathiel begat Zorobabel; (Matt 1:12)”

Problem: God cursed the descendants of King Jehoiachin (or Jeconiah) saying, “Write this man down childless, a man who will not prosper in his days; for no man of his descendants will prosper sitting on the throne of David or ruling again in Judah” (Jer. 22:30). Yet, Matthew writes that Jesus was a descendant of Jehoiachin. Critics argue that this disqualifies Jesus from the Messianic lS: A number of responses can be made.

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Malachi 3:1 – Why does Mark cite Malachi 3:1 and Isaiah 40:3?

“Behold, I will send my messenger, and he shall prepare the way before me: and the Lord, whom ye seek, shall suddenly come to his temple, even the messenger of the covenant, whom ye delight in: behold, he shall come, saith the Lord of hosts.  Malachi 3:1″

Problem: Mark cites from Malachi 3:1 and Isaiah 40:3. Why does he do this?

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Malachi 2:13-16 – What does this passage tell us about divorce?

“And this have ye done again, covering the altar of the Lord with tears, with weeping, and with crying out, insomuch that he regardeth not the offering any more, or receiveth it with good will at your hand. Yet ye say, Wherefore? Because the Lord hath been witness between thee and the wife of thy youth, against whom thou hast dealt treacherously: yet is she thy companion, and the wife of thy covenant. And did not he make one? Yet had he the residue of the spirit. And wherefore one? That he might seek a godly seed. Therefore take heed to your spirit, and let none deal treacherously against the wife of his youth. For the Lord, the God of Israel, saith that he hateth putting away: for one covereth violence with his garment, saith the Lord of hosts: therefore take heed to your spirit, that ye deal not treacherously. Mal 2:13-16)”

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Malachi 1:3—If God is love, how could He hate any person?

“I have loved you, saith the Lord. Yet ye say, Wherein hast thou loved us? Was not Esau Jacob’s brother? saith the Lord: yet I loved Jacob,And I hated Esau, and laid his mountains and his heritage waste for the dragons of the wilderness.  Malachi 1:2-3″

Problem: In the latter part of verse 2 and the first part of verse 3, God says, “Yet Jacob I have loved; But Esau I have hated.” But, John says, “God is love” (1 John 4:16). How can a God of love hate any one person?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty