Paul

Eph 6:5 – Did Paul Endorse Slavery?

Eph 6:5 – Did Paul Endorse Slavery?

Problem: Thousands of years prior to the establishment of the Lord’s Church, and long before Paul addressed the conduct of Christian slaves in the first century, various forms of slavery were commonplace. In fact, virtually every ancient civilization used slaves.1 Slavery was prevalent enough in Babylon in the 18th century B.C. to be mentioned numerous times in the Code of Hammurabi.2 The Egyptians enslaved hundreds of thousands of Israelites in the 16th century B.C. (Exodus 1; cf. Numbers 1:46). Historians estimate that, by the time Paul wrote his New Testament epistles in the first century A.D., five to eight million slaves resided within the Roman Empire,3 including 15-25% of the total population of Italy.4

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching
Gal 3:17 – Did the Israelites stay 400 years (Gen. 15:13, Acts 7:6), 430 years (Ex. 12:40-41, Gal. 3:17), or 450 years (Acts 13:20) in Egypt?

Gal 3:17 – Did the Israelites stay 400 years (Gen. 15:13, Acts 7:6), 430 years (Ex. 12:40-41, Gal. 3:17), or 450 years (Acts 13:20) in Egypt?

Problem: In Galatians 3:17 Paul takes the 430 years of Exodus 12:40-41 to refer to the period from the day God appears to Abraham and he leaves for/into Canaan to the day of the Exodus. This is the most logical interpretation because Genesis 15:13 says his descendants will be “sojourners in a foreign land” for 400 years; Abraham is 75 when he leaves Haran (Gen. 12:4), and Isaac is born to him when he’s 100 (Gen. 21:5). This leaves us with 405 years technically, which is why some older commentators supposed that the 400 years began when Ishmael teased a 5-year-old Isaac (Gen. 20:9 – Ishmael laughed, presumably at Isaac’s expense). This is neither possible nor necessary to prove – 405 years can easily be rounded to 400 to carry the same sense, much like other ages and numbers are.

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching
Gal 1:16-18 – When did Paul go to Jerusalem?

Gal 1:16-18 – When did Paul go to Jerusalem?

Problem: Three times in the book of Acts,the Bible student is informed that after Saul’s conversion to Christ in Damascus, he departed for Jerusalem. According to Acts chapter 9, Saul (also called Paul) “increased all the more in strength” following his baptism into Christ, and “confounded the Jews who dwelt in Damascus” (vs. 22). Then, when “many days were past…the disciples took him by night and let him down through the wall in a large basket” for fear of the Jews (vss. 23,25). Immediately following these verses, the text reads: “And when Saul had come to Jerusalem, he tried to join the disciples; but they were all afraid of him, and did not believe that he was a disciple” (vs. 26, emp. added). Add to these verses Paul’s respective statements to the Jerusalem mob (Acts 22:17) and to King Agrippa (Acts 26:20) regarding his journey from Damascus to Jerusalem, and Bible students get the impression that shortly after Paul‘s conversion in Damascus, he journeyed to Jerusalem. The problem with this reasoning is that Paul later wrote to the churches of Galatia, and indicated that he “did not immediately…go up to Jerusalem” following his calling to Christ (Galatians 1:16). Rather, he went to Arabia, back to Damascus, and then after three years he went up to Jerusalem (1:17-18). [NOTE: “Arabia” generally is taken as a reference to the vast peninsula which bears that name. Its northwestern boundaries reached almost to Damascus—Pfeiffer, 1979, p. 203.] Concerned Bible students want to know how these passages are harmonized? Did Paul go straight to Jerusalem shortly after his conversion, or three years later?
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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching
2 Cor 7:8 – What Is a Sorrowful Letter?

2 Cor 7:8 – What Is a Sorrowful Letter?

Problem: Evangelical scholarship is divided as to whether there was a lost letter (often called the “sorrowful letter”) in between 1 and 2 Corinthians. Paul writes, “For out of much affliction and anguish of heart I wrote to you with many tears” (2 Cor. 2:4), and later he writes, “For though I caused you sorrow by my letter, I do not regret it; though I did regret it—for I see that that letter caused you sorrow” (2 Cor. 7:8). When Paul refers to an earlier letter, is he referring to a lost letter, or is he referring to 1 Corinthians?
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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching
2 Cor 1:13 – Are Paul’s Letters Hard or Easy to Understand?

2 Cor 1:13 – Are Paul’s Letters Hard or Easy to Understand?

Problem: An alleged contradiction is said to occur between 2 Corinthians 1:131 and 2 Peter 3:16. One passage states that what was written could be understood, and the other states that there are things which are hard to understand. Is this an irreconcilable contradiction? The easiest way to demonstrate that there is no contradiction is to examine the extended context of both passages. When looked at in this way, it is clear that different things are being discussed.
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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching
1 Cor 15:33 – By quoting a pagan poet as part of Scripture, doesn’t Paul thereby pronounce this pagan writing a part of Scripture?

1 Cor 15:33 – By quoting a pagan poet as part of Scripture, doesn’t Paul thereby pronounce this pagan writing a part of Scripture?

Problem: Paul quoted a Cretan who said that “Cretans are always liars” (1:12). But if this was said by a Cretan and Cretans always lie, then he too was lying. But if this Cretan was lying when he said Cretans always lie, then Cretans do not always lie and there is a lie in the Scripture. If, on the other hand, this Cretan was telling the truth about Cretans, then Cretans do not always lie, at least not the one who said this. In either event, by incorporating this statement in Scripture, the apostle seems to have included a falsehood.

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching