Problem: He chose to live in the wicked city of Sodom (Genesis 13:12-13). He offered his two virgin daughters to an angry mob of homosexuals (Genesis 19:5-8). He later became drunk and impregnated his daughters, albeit unknowingly (Genesis 19:30-36). Anyone vaguely familiar with Old Testament history likely knows of Lot and his troubles. For this reason, some find it troubling that Lot is called “righteous” in the New Testament. Peter, in fact, used the term “righteous” three times to describe the patriarch: “God…delivered righteous Lot, who was oppressed by the filthy conduct of the wicked (for that righteous man, dwelling among them, tormented his righteous soul from day to day by seeing and hearing their lawless deeds” (2 Peter 2:7-8, emp. added). Why did Peter repeatedly call Lot “righteous” when many see a different picture of Lot in Genesis? Was Lot really righteous? Does the Bible contradict itself?
10
May
2026
