Problem: In Matthew, Jesus represents His coming as “immediately after” (24:29) the Great Tribulation. But Luke seems to separate it by the “times of the Gentiles” (Luke 21:24, 27).
Solution: The interval referred to by Luke is the time between the destruction of Jerusalem (a.d. 70), which began God’s judgment on Jerusalem (cf. Matt. 24:2), and the return of Christ to earth “with power and great glory” (Matt. 24:30). So, when Matthew affirms that Christ’s coming is “immediately after the tribulation of those days” (24:29), he is referring to the end of the “times of the Gentiles” mentioned by Luke (21:24). Hence, there is no irresolvable conflict between the two accounts.
“Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken: (Matt 24:29)”