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Problem: Charismatic Answer: Only those Christians who have had the “Pentecostal” experience of speaking in tongues.

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Problem: Charismatic Answer: “subsequent to salvation”. If it happens after salvation, then this means a person could be saved who has not yet had this experience of Spirit baptism.

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Problem: “The baptism in the Holy Spirit is a definite, personal experience subsequent to salvation and confirmed to the believer with the evidence of speaking in a new language or tongue supernaturally as the Holy Spirit gives utterance.” [From a Charismatic tract written by Dr. Hobart Freeman and published by Faith Ministries & Publications.]

“The baptism of the Holy Spirit as a separate, distinct experience subsequent to salvation, providing enduement of power for life and service, accompanied by speaking in tongues.”  [From the doctrinal statement of the Rock Church (the name of certain charismatic churches in Connecticut and perhaps elsewhere).]

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Problem: The tarrying experience, as often practiced in Charismatic circles today, is described as follows:

The tarrying procedure for seeking tongues goes like this: Following the sermon, the preacher invites those who want the tongues experience to come to the altar and kneel. Then those who already have received this experience join the seekers to pray with them and offer help and advice. In a relatively short time, some of the seekers begin talking in tongues. For others, it is a much longer ordeal. In an evening service, it is not unusual for seekers to pray until after midnight, even though few of the “altar workers” may remain. And if a seekers doesn’t succeed on this particular night, he is encouraged to keep trying. I tarried many nights; I spent many hours in prayer at altars but no matter how long I prayed, I went without success.  [Wayne A. Robinson, I Once Spoke in Tongues, pages 37-38.]

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Problem: John concludes his gospel by referring to himself as the singular author (“This is the disciple who is testifying…”). However, he also uses the first person plural (“We know that his testimony is true”). Does this mean that John’s disciples wrote this book?
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Problem: Amillennial and historical premillennial interpreters argue that the rapture cannot be imminent because Jesus told Peter: “When you were younger, you used to gird yourself and walk wherever you wished; but when you grow old, you will stretch out your hands and someone else will gird you, and bring you where you do not wish to go” (Jn. 21:18). John goes on to write that this described Peter’s death. Thus, they argue, if Jesus couldn’t return before Peter’s death by crucifixion (~AD 67), then how can the rapture be truly imminent?
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Problem: Roman Catholic theologians note that a “shepherd” was a metaphor for kingly authority (2 Sam. 5:2). From this, it is argued that Jesus was putting Peter in the position of authority over the other apostles. Is this the case?
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Problem: Christ’s Resurrection led to a confusing day, as His followers raced around the city. Skeptics point to alleged contradictions to prove Scripture wrong. Can the four Gospels be reconciled?

The Gospels can’t keep their stories straight! How many women went to the tomb and when did they leave? How many angels visited the tomb? Did Jesus appear to all the women or just Mary Magdalene?

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Problems: Critics argue that this chapter was a later interpolation onto John’s gospel for several reasons: First, the gospel of John appears to conclude with John’s purpose statement of the book (Jn. 20:30-31). Second, critics theorize that later authors (the Johannine community?) had to correct an error that Jesus would return before John’s death. Since John died, it must therefore be an interpolation by a later author or authors. Is this the case?
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Problem: A gentleman who was struggling with his beliefs in the inerrancy of the Bible recently contacted our offices questioning why Jesus told the scribes and Pharisees that “no sign shall be given to this generation” (Mark 8:12; cf. Matthew 12:39; 16:4; Luke 11:29). Since other scriptures clearly teach that Jesus worked “many signs” (John 12:37; 20:30-31; 3:2; Acts 2:22), how could Jesus truthfully and consistently say, “no sign shall be given to this generation”? According to certain Bible critics, Jesus was a false prophet since His “prediction that no sign would be given to that generation is clearly false” (McKinsey, 1995, p. 114; cf. Wells, 2010). How can a Christian reasonably and biblically respond to such an assertion?
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Problem: Jesus said to Thomas, “Because you have seen Me, have you believed? Blessed are they who did not see, and yet believed” (Jn. 20:29). Fideists argue that this passage supports blind faith. Is this the case?
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Problem: When Thomas saw the risen Christ with his own eyes, he said to Him, “My Lord and my God” (John 20:28).
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Problem: Jesus said, “If you forgive the sins of any, their sins have been forgiven them; if you retain the sins of any, they have been retained” (Jn. 20:23). Roman Catholic authorities claim that this passage supports the notion of penance being distributed through the priesthood (see The Catholic Catechism, paragraphs 976, 1461, 1485). Currie writes, “Only God can forgive sins. Jesus demonstrated that when he was here on earth. But here Jesus explicitly delegates this power to the group of men who will lead his Church.”
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Problem: Did the women tell the disciples what happened at the tomb and the resurrection of Jesus, or not? Matt 28:8; Mark 16:8; Luke 24:9; John 20:18
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Problem: John writes “[Jesus] breathed on them and said to them, ‘Receive the Holy Spirit’” (Jn. 20:22). Pentecostals interpret this as the firstblessing of the Holy Spirit (where we are sealed in Christ—Eph. 1:13-14; 1 Cor. 12:13), but then, the disciples wait for a time to get the secondblessing at Pentecost (Acts 2:1-4). Likewise, it is argued, people can be sealed by the Holy Spirit at conversion, but they should expect a second Spirit-baptism in the future, so that they can be effective in ministry. Is this the case?
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