petra1000

I am a born again christian who loves the Lord and I am taking bible classes online
I am a born again christian who loves the Lord and I am taking bible classes online

Matthew 2:16 – Did Herod really commit a mass genocide of babies?

“Then Herod, when he saw that he was mocked of the wise men, was exceeding wroth, and sent forth, and slew all the children that were in Bethlehem, and in all the coasts thereof, from two years old and under, according to the time which he had diligently inquired of the wise men. (Matt 2:16″

Problem: Matthew records that Herod killed all of the male babies under the age of two years old (Mt. 2:16). No other extrabiblical source mentions this. Josephus—a first century historian—follows the life of Herod, but he fails to mention this. How could such a major genocide not be mentioned by Josephus or anyone else?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Matthew 2:14-15 – How could Matthew quote Hosea as a “fulfillment” of Jesus, when Hosea was referring to the nation of Israel?

When he arose, he took the young child and his mother by night, and departed into Egypt: And was there until the death of Herod: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Out of Egypt have I called my son. (Matt 2:14-15)

Problem: Hosea 11:1 reads: “When Israel was a youth I loved him, and out of Egypt I called My son.” However, Matthew quotes this passage as though Jesus was the fulfillment. Critics argue that Matthew was pulling this passage out of its context. Had Matthew bothered to read the beginning of the verse, he would have seen that this was about the nation of Israel—not the Messiah. Thus in his article “Matthew Twists the Scriptures,” critical scholar S.V. McCasland writes, “The interpretation of Hosea 11:1 not only illustrates how early Christians found a meaning entirely foreign to the original; it may also show how incidents in the story of Jesus have been inferred from the OT… [This] indicates how desperately early Christians searched the Scrip­tures to find proof for the things happening among them.”[1] Is this the case?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Matthew 1:23 – Did Isaiah really predict a virgin birth?

Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us. (Matt 1:23)

The way the critics flock to this passage, we might think that it was a central prophecy of the NT! In reality, it is cited only once—here in Matthew (Mt. 1:23). And yet, Matthew had good reason for citing it. Let’s consider a number of criticisms hurled against this passage.

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Matthew 1:17—How many generations were listed between the captivity and Christ, 14 or 13?

So all the generations from Abraham to David are fourteen generations; and from David until the carrying away into Babylon are fourteen generations; and from the carrying away into Babylon unto Christ are fourteen generations. (Matt 1:17)

Problem: Matthew says the generations “from the captivity in Babylon until the Christ are fourteen generations” (1:17). However, he lists only 13 names after the captivity is counted. So, which is correct, 13 or 14 ?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Matthew 1:12 – Who is Shealtiel’s father? Jeconiah or Neri? (cf. Lk. 3:27)

And after they were brought to Babylon, Jechonias begat Salathiel; and Salathiel begat Zorobabel; (Matt 1:12)”

Problem: Matthew and Luke both give different names for the father of Shealtiel.

Matthew: Jeconiah, Shealtiel, then Zerubbabel (Mt. 1:12).

Luke: Neri, Shealtiel, then Zerubbabel (Lk. 3:27).

Is this a contradiction?

 

Solution: There are two ways to solve this difficulty:

OPTION #1: These are different Shealtiel’s
Advocates of this view note that this was a common name at the time, and there are multiple repetitions of names in these genealogies (e.g. Joseph, Mattathias, Judah).

OPTION #2: This is the case of a Levirate marriage
1 Chronicles 3:17-19 states that Jeconiah was the father of Shealtiel and Pedaiah. But then the text says that Pedaiah’s son was also called Zerubbabel! But other passages state that Shealtiel was the father of Zerubbabel (Ezra 3:2; Neh. 12:1; Hag. 1:1). This shows that this could have been a case of levirate marriage (see Gen. 38:8-9; Deut. 25:5-10). A widow of a childless man could marry his brother. When the woman gave birth, he would carry on his deceased father’s name. This was the case so a man’s name could go on—even if he died prematurely. Michael Brown writes, “In the case of Zerubabbel, it would appear that his biological father was Pedaiah, the younger brother of Shealtiel who died childless. Pedaiah then married the widow of Shealtiel, in accordance with the laws of levirate marriage, and his firstborn son, Zerubabbel, was counted as the son of his deceased brother, Shealtiel, to ‘build up his brother’s family line’ (Deut. 25:9).”[1]

[1] Brown, Michael L. Answering Jewish Objections to Jesus: New Testament Objections. Grand Rapids, MI: Baker, 2006. 79.

Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Matthew 1:12 – How could Jesus be the Messiah, if God cursed the descendants of King Jehoiachin (Jer. 22:30)?

And after they were brought to Babylon, Jechonias begat Salathiel; and Salathiel begat Zorobabel; (Matt 1:12)”

Problem: God cursed the descendants of King Jehoiachin (or Jeconiah) saying, “Write this man down childless, a man who will not prosper in his days; for no man of his descendants will prosper sitting on the throne of David or ruling again in Judah” (Jer. 22:30). Yet, Matthew writes that Jesus was a descendant of Jehoiachin. Critics argue that this disqualifies Jesus from the Messianic lS: A number of responses can be made.

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Malachi 3:1 – Why does Mark cite Malachi 3:1 and Isaiah 40:3?

Behold, I will send my messenger, and he shall prepare the way before me: and the Lord, whom ye seek, shall suddenly come to his temple, even the messenger of the covenant, whom ye delight in: behold, he shall come, saith the Lord of hosts.  Malachi 3:1″

Problem: Mark cites from Malachi 3:1 and Isaiah 40:3. Why does he do this?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty