Problem: Peter declares that “there is no other name under heaven given among men by which we must be saved.” But isn’t this a narrow exclusivism? What about the sincere pagan or Buddhist? Is God going to send them to hell?
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Acts 3:21 – Does this passage imply universalism?
Problem: In his public teaching, Peter spoke about “the time for restoring all the things” (Acts 3:21 ESV). Universalists argue that Peter believed that all people will be saved in the end (“…restoring all the things…”). Does this imply that all people will be saved in the end? If not, what does Peter mean by “restoring all the things”?
Acts 3:21 – Will all things be restored to God or just some things?
Problem: On the one hand, this verse speaks of the “restoration of all things,” which seems to imply that all will eventually be saved. On the other hand, the Scriptures declare that many will be lost (Matt. 25:41; Rev. 19:20–20:15). Will everyone eventually be saved?
Acts 2:44-45 – Were the early Christians the first communist?
Problem: Luke writes, “And all those who had believed were together and had all things in common; 45 and they began selling their property and possessions and were sharing them with all, as anyone might have need” (Acts 2:44-45). Likewise, in a later passage, we read, “Not one of them claimed that anything belonging to him was his own, but all things were common property to them” (Acts 4:32). Doesn’t this imply that the first Christians were communists?
Acts 2:44–45 – Did early Christians practice communism?
Problem: Some have inferred from the fact that these early Christians “sold their possessions” and had “all things in common” that they were practicing a form of communism. However, even the Ten Commandments imply the right to private property, forbidding one to “steal” or even “covet” what belongs to another (Ex. 20:15, 17).
Acts 2:38 – Are we saved by faith or by baptism?
Are we saved from our sins by faith or by faith and baptism? Though the Bible says that baptism is a very important part of the Christian life, it is not necessary for salvation. The truth is that we are saved by faith alone in Christ alone. Let’s take a look at scriptures used for both sides.
Acts 2:38 – Is baptism necessary for salvation?
Problem: Peter states, “Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit” (Acts 2:38). When Peter refers to baptism here, he no doubt is referring to water baptism. Does this imply that we need water baptism in order to be forgiven?
Acts 2:38 – Did Peter declare that baptism was necessary for salvation?
Problem: Peter seems to be saying that those who responded had to repent and be baptized before they could receive the Holy Spirit. But this is contrary to the teaching of Paul that baptism is not part of the Gospel (1 Cor. 1:17) and that we are saved by faith alone (Rom. 4:4; Eph. 2:8–9).
Acts 2:34 – Is David in heaven or not?
Problem: Peter seems to imply here that David was not in heaven. He wrote, “David did not ascend into the heavens.” Yet the Bible indicates that David was one of God’s choice servants (Acts 13:22) who obviously went to be with his Lord when he died (cf. Matt. 22:42–46).
Acts 2:25-28 – Why does Peter cite Psalm 16:10 to demonstrate the resurrection of Jesus?
Problem: David writes, “For You will not abandon my soul to Sheol; nor will You allow Your Holy One to undergo decay” (Ps. 16:10). Peter cites this passage to refer to the resurrection of Jesus in Acts 2:25-28. Does this passage make his case?
Solution: According to the superscription, David is the author of this psalm. Thus, in order for this to be a messianic psalm, either (1) David is speaking about his offspring in the Davidic covenant or (2) David is speaking of the Holy One who is at his “right hand” (Ps. 16:8). Continue reading →
Acts 2:16-21 – Does Peter misquote Joel 2:28-32?
Problem: While Joel 2:28-32 does predict the pouring out of God’s Spirit (v.17), it also predicts, “And I will grant wonders in the sky above and signs on the earth below, blood, and fire, and vapor of smoke. 20 The sun will be turned into darkness and the moon into blood, before the great and glorious day of the Lord shall come” (v.19-20). Amillennial interpreters argue that Peter is spiritualizing this OT passage. If the apostles believed that these OT prophecies should be interpreted in a spiritualized sense, then this would give us an allegorical hermeneutic for interpreting the OT. Is this the case?
Acts 2:16–21—Did Peter make a mistake in quoting Joel?
Problem: In Acts 2, Pentecost arrives, and the disciples are filled with the Holy Spirit. In response to criticism, Peter says that what they hear and see was “spoken by the prophet Joel” (cf. Joel 2:28–32). Yet, in the passage that Peter quotes, there are events in it that did not happen at Pentecost, like the moon turning to blood. Does Peter err on this occasion?
Acts 2:1-4 – Does this passage support the Pentecostal doctrine of the second blessing?
Problem: Acts 2:1-4 states, “When the day of Pentecost had come, they were all together in one place. 2 And suddenly there came from heaven a noise like a violent rushing wind, and it filled the whole house where they were sitting. 3 And there appeared to them tongues as of fire distributing themselves, and they rested on each one of them. 4 And they were all filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit was giving them utterance.” Pentecostal theologians claim that this passage supports the doctrine of a Spirit baptism. Is this the case?
Acts 1:26 – Should we cast lots?
Problem: The eleven apostles needed a twelfth after the death of Judas. To make the decision between Barsabbas and Matthias, Luke records that “they drew lots for them, and the lot fell to Matthias; and he was added to the eleven apostles” (Acts 1:26). Why did they cast lots for such a major decision, and are we supposed to do this today?
Acts 1:15-26 – Does this passage support papal succession?
Problem: Roman Catholic apologists argue that Judas’ replacement by Matthias supports the notion of papal succession. That is, instead of having a first century apostleship, this is carried on from generation to generation. Catholic apologist David Currie writes,
This is presupposed in what the apostles did in Acts 1. The fact that there was no discussion of the matter so soon after Jesus had been teaching them lends credence to the Catholic position. Christ himself must have provided for succession when he taught the apostles during the time between his Resurrection and his Ascension.[1]
Is the replacement of Judas support of papal succession?
