Problem: Even Jesus admitted to Peter, “Satan has asked for you, that he may sift you as wheat” (Luke 22:31). However, John insists here that “he who has been born of God keeps himself, and the wicked one does not touch him.” These passages appear to conflict with each other.
Problem: On the one hand, the Scriptures speak of God’s free and unconditional forgiveness to all who want it (cf. Acts 13:38–39; Rom. 5:20; 1 John 2:1). On the other hand, Jesus spoke of an unpardonable sin that can never be forgiven. And John declares here that there is a “sin leading to death.”
Problem: John declares that “there are three who bear witness in heaven: the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit; and these three are one” (kjv). This is the clearest statement on the Trinity in the Bible. However, most modern translations omit this verse. Why?
Problem: John affirms here that “perfect love casts out all fear.” Yet we are told that the “fear of the Lord is the beginning of knowledge” (Prov. 1:7) and that we should “serve the Lord with fear” (Ps. 2:11). Indeed, Paul said, “knowing … the terror [fear] of the Lord, we persuade men” (2 Cor. 5:11).
Problem: John declares that those who deny “Jesus Christ has come in the flesh” are of Antichrist. While all orthodox Christians take this to mean Jesus was fully human, including having a physical body of flesh before His resurrection, some contend that Jesus was not raised from the dead in the same body of flesh and bones in which He died, but in a body that was not essentially material. What does this verse mean?
Problem: John affirms here that “Whoever has been born of God does not sin.” But in the first chapter he insisted that “If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us” (1:8).
Problem: According to this passage, God looks upon the unborn as a human being. However, if the unborn is fully human, then abortion would be the willful killing of the innocent—murder. Does this passage indicate that God considers abortion to be murder?
Problem: When the psalmist considers the ultimate judgment that will be brought against Babylon, he appears to rejoice that babies will be injured. How could a man of God rejoice over such a tragic and cruel event?
Problem: This psalm, like many others in the OT (e.g., Pss. 35; 69), pronounces curses on one’s enemies. Thus they are called imprecatory (cursing) psalms. David says, “Let his children be fatherless, and his wife a widow” (109:9). By contrast, Jesus said, “Love your enemies … and pray for those who … persecute you” (Matt. 5:44). How can the God of vengeance of the OT be the same as the God of love of the NT (1 John 4:16)? Continue reading →
Problem: This verse, and several others (cf. Ps. 78:69; Ecc. 1:4), speak of the earth being “established forever.” By contrast, the Bible also teaches that the heavens and the earth “will perish” (Ps. 102:26) or “pass away” (Luke 21:33), being “burned up” (2 Peter 3:10).
Problem: The psalmist commands, “Worship Him, all you gods.” Yet the Bible elsewhere insists there is only one God (Deut. 6:4). Continue reading →
Problem: Over and over the Bible speaks of the innocence and guiltlessness of little children (cf. Deut. 1:39) who do not “know to refuse evil and choose the good” (Isa. 7:15), and who are part of the kingdom of God (Matt. 18:3–4; cf. Rom. 9:11). Yet, in this verse David insists that “the wicked are estranged from the womb; they go astray as soon as they are born, speaking lies.” But, if a baby is morally guiltless, then how can he or she speak lies?
Problem: The psalmist said, “they are in great fear where no fear was.” But how could they be in fear if there was no fear there?
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