1 Cor 13:13 – Why does Paul place love above faith and hope?

Problem: The Bible places a high value on both faith and hope. The author of Hebrews explains that it is impossible to please God without faith (Heb. 11:6). Paul writes, “Whatever is not from faith is sin” (Rom. 14:23). However, Paul states that love is greater than faith and hope. Why does he say this?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

1 Cor 13:8-13 – Are prophecy and tongues temporary?

Problem: Cessationist Richard Gaffin writes, “A basic point of 1 Corinthians 13:8–13 is the temporary, that is, less than eschatological significance of prophetic gifts like prophecy and tongues.”[1] Does this passage teach that the charismatic gifts are limited to the first century church?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

1 Cor. 12:28 – Are the spiritual gifts equal or not?

Problem: Paul argues that the eye cannot say to the hand, “I have no need of you” (1 Cor. 12:21). Earlier, he argues that “the body is not one member, but many” (1 Cor. 12:14). However, in this passage, Paul places the gifts in some sort of prioritized order (e.g. first, second, third, etc.). Are the spiritual gifts equal or not?

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1 Cor 12:3 – Is it impossible for a false teacher to say the phrase “Jesus is Lord”?

Problem: Paul writes, “No one can say, ‘Jesus is Lord,’ except by the Holy Spirit” (1 Cor. 12:3). However, false teachers will often claim to speak for God, using the phrase “Jesus is Lord.” For instance, consider the documentary Marjoe. In this film, a non-Christian swindler steals thousands of dollars from Christian people, claiming to speak for God. In addition to modern examples, even within the NT, we see non-Christians speaking God’s truth (Acts 16:16-17; c.f. Mt. 7:21; Jas. 2:19). How does this all square with this passage?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

1 Cor 11:29 – Is Paul referring to transubstantiation in this passage? Or something else?

Problem: Paul writes, “He who eats and drinks, eats and drinks judgment to himself if he does not judge the body rightly” (1 Cor. 11:29). Roman Catholic theologians hold that Paul is referring to transubstantiation—where the bread and wine of the Lord’s Supper become the literal body and blood of Jesus. After all, Paul calls these elements “the body” in this passage. Is this the case?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

1 Cor. 11:27 – Taking the Lord’s Supper in an unworthy manner?

Problem: Paul writes, “Whoever eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner, shall be guilty of the body and the blood of the Lord” (1 Cor. 11:27). Later, he writes, “For this reason many among you are weak and sick, and a number sleep” (1 Cor. 11:30). Of course, “sleep” was a common euphemism for “death” in first century culture (Jn. 11:11-13). This being said: Will God kill people, if they take the Lord’s Supper when they are “guilty” of sin or if they are “unworthy”?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching