Problem: “The baptism in the Holy Spirit is a definite, personal experience subsequent to salvation and confirmed to the believer with the evidence of speaking in a new language or tongue supernaturally as the Holy Spirit gives utterance.” [From a Charismatic tract written by Dr. Hobart Freeman and published by Faith Ministries & Publications.]
“The baptism of the Holy Spirit as a separate, distinct experience subsequent to salvation, providing enduement of power for life and service, accompanied by speaking in tongues.” [From the doctrinal statement of the Rock Church (the name of certain charismatic churches in Connecticut and perhaps elsewhere).]
Acts 1:4 – Is it necessary to wait or “tarry” for the Holy Spirit?
Problem: The tarrying experience, as often practiced in Charismatic circles today, is described as follows:
The tarrying procedure for seeking tongues goes like this: Following the sermon, the preacher invites those who want the tongues experience to come to the altar and kneel. Then those who already have received this experience join the seekers to pray with them and offer help and advice. In a relatively short time, some of the seekers begin talking in tongues. For others, it is a much longer ordeal. In an evening service, it is not unusual for seekers to pray until after midnight, even though few of the “altar workers” may remain. And if a seekers doesn’t succeed on this particular night, he is encouraged to keep trying. I tarried many nights; I spent many hours in prayer at altars but no matter how long I prayed, I went without success. [Wayne A. Robinson, I Once Spoke in Tongues, pages 37-38.]
John 21:24 – Does this passage imply that the Johannine community wrote this book (or final chapter)?
Problem: John concludes his gospel by referring to himself as the singular author (“This is the disciple who is testifying…”). However, he also uses the first person plural (“We know that his testimony is true”). Does this mean that John’s disciples wrote this book?
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John 21:18 – Does this passage preclude the imminency of the rapture?
Problem: Amillennial and historical premillennial interpreters argue that the rapture cannot be imminent because Jesus told Peter: “When you were younger, you used to gird yourself and walk wherever you wished; but when you grow old, you will stretch out your hands and someone else will gird you, and bring you where you do not wish to go” (Jn. 21:18). John goes on to write that this described Peter’s death. Thus, they argue, if Jesus couldn’t return before Peter’s death by crucifixion (~AD 67), then how can the rapture be truly imminent?
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John21:15-17 – Does this passage support the primacy of Peter as Roman Catholic theologians argue?
Problem: Roman Catholic theologians note that a “shepherd” was a metaphor for kingly authority (2 Sam. 5:2). From this, it is argued that Jesus was putting Peter in the position of authority over the other apostles. Is this the case?
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John 21:1-2 – Christ’s Resurrection—Four Accounts, One Reality
Problem: Christ’s Resurrection led to a confusing day, as His followers raced around the city. Skeptics point to alleged contradictions to prove Scripture wrong. Can the four Gospels be reconciled?
The Gospels can’t keep their stories straight! How many women went to the tomb and when did they leave? How many angels visited the tomb? Did Jesus appear to all the women or just Mary Magdalene?
John 21 – Is John 21 a later interpolation by the Johannine community?
Problems: Critics argue that this chapter was a later interpolation onto John’s gospel for several reasons: First, the gospel of John appears to conclude with John’s purpose statement of the book (Jn. 20:30-31). Second, critics theorize that later authors (the Johannine community?) had to correct an error that Jesus would return before John’s death. Since John died, it must therefore be an interpolation by a later author or authors. Is this the case?
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John 20:30-31 – Did Jesus Perform Miracles Or Not?
Problem: A gentleman who was struggling with his beliefs in the inerrancy of the Bible recently contacted our offices questioning why Jesus told the scribes and Pharisees that “no sign shall be given to this generation” (Mark 8:12; cf. Matthew 12:39; 16:4; Luke 11:29). Since other scriptures clearly teach that Jesus worked “many signs” (John 12:37; 20:30-31; 3:2; Acts 2:22), how could Jesus truthfully and consistently say, “no sign shall be given to this generation”? According to certain Bible critics, Jesus was a false prophet since His “prediction that no sign would be given to that generation is clearly false” (McKinsey, 1995, p. 114; cf. Wells, 2010). How can a Christian reasonably and biblically respond to such an assertion?
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John 20:29 – Does this passage support blind faith?
Problem: Jesus said to Thomas, “Because you have seen Me, have you believed? Blessed are they who did not see, and yet believed” (Jn. 20:29). Fideists argue that this passage supports blind faith. Is this the case?
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John 20:28 – Did Thomas Address Jesus as “God”?
Problem: When Thomas saw the risen Christ with his own eyes, he said to Him, “My Lord and my God” (John 20:28).
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