This isn’t a difficult issue at all. On the one hand, God is not the author of confusion: “For God is not a God of confusion but of peace, as in all the churches of the saints,” (1 Cor. 14:33). The context of this verse is dealing with the gift of tongues as were spoken in Christian churches in its early years.
Problem: Paul writes, “The women are to keep silent [Greek sigaōpronounced see-GAH-oh] in the churches; for they are not permitted to speak [Greek laleō; pronounced la-LAY-oh], but are to subject themselves, just as the Law also says. 35 If they desire to learn anything, let them ask their own husbands at home; for it is improper for a woman to speak in church” (1 Cor. 14:34-35). Are women allowed to speak during Bible studies or not? Does the OT Law really teach that women should be silent?
Problem: Paul writes, “Tongues are for a sign, not to those who believe but to unbelievers” (1 Cor. 14:22). However, usually when non-Christians see Christians speaking in tongues, this seems bizarre, and it pushes them away from Christianity. Why does Paul write this?
Problem: Why does Paul quote Isaiah 28:11 in this passage? Did he rip this passage from its original context?
Problem: The Bible places a high value on both faith and hope. The author of Hebrews explains that it is impossible to please God without faith (Heb. 11:6). Paul writes, “Whatever is not from faith is sin” (Rom. 14:23). However, Paul states that love is greater than faith and hope. Why does he say this?
Problem: Cessationist Richard Gaffin writes, “A basic point of 1 Corinthians 13:8–13 is the temporary, that is, less than eschatological significance of prophetic gifts like prophecy and tongues.”[1] Does this passage teach that the charismatic gifts are limited to the first century church?
Problem: Does this passage teach that Christians should be gullible?