Problem: Isaiah states that the Jewish people will be regathered “a second time.” Some interpreters argue that the first gathering refers to the Exodus from Egypt (citing verse 16), and the second gathering refers to the return from the Babylonian Exile.[1] Is this the case?
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Problem: This passage in Isaiah is messianic, and it speaks of a future person who will have the Spirit of the Lord (v.2) and bring righteousness to the Earth (v.4). However, Isaiah writes, “A shoot will spring from the stem of Jesse” (Isa. 11:1), who was David’s father. Usually, the prophets spoke about the son of David, who would be the Messiah –not the son of Jesse. Why does Isaiah use Jesse, instead of David here?
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Problem: When Isaiah gets his calling to be a prophet, God tells him, “Render the hearts of this people insensitive, their ears dull, and their eyes dim, otherwise they might see with their eyes, hear with their ears, understand with their hearts, and return and be healed” (Isa. 6:10). Did God send Isaiah so that the people would not repent?
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Problem: Matthew writes, “This was to fulfill what was spoken through Isaiah the prophet: 15 ‘The land of Zebulun and the land of Naphtali, by the way of the sea, beyond the Jordan, Galilee of the Gentiles— 16 The people who were sitting in darkness saw a great Light, and those who were sitting in the land and shadow of death, upon them a Light dawned” (Mt. 4:14-16). Why does Matthew cite this passage, and how is fulfilled by Christ?
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Problem: The author writes, “And again, ‘I will put My trust in Him.’ And again, ‘Behold, I and the children whom God has given Me’” (Heb. 2:13). This citation comes from Isaiah 8:17-18. Why does he cite it here?
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Problem: Isaiah 8:16 states: “Bind up the testimony, seal the law among my disciples.” Critics argue that Isaiah believed that his disciples would finish his work, which is sometimes referred to as “Second” Isaiah. Is this the case?
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Problem: Isaiah 7:14, in Hebrew means maiden, not virgin. Critics of the Bible will, therefore, say it is not a prophecy. But, it is a prophecy because of how the Jews translated it in the Septuagint. Isaiah 7:14 says that a virgin will bear a son. The Hebrew word for virgin, which is almah. According to the Strong’s Concordance, it means, “virgin, young woman 1a) of marriageable age 1b) maid or newly married.” Therefore, the word almah does not always mean virgin. The word “occurs elsewhere in the Old Testament only in Genesis 24:43 (maiden); Exodus 2:8 (girl); Psalm 68:25 (maidens); Proverbs 30:19 (maiden); Song of Songs 1:3 (maidens); 6:8 (virgins).” [1] Additionally, there is a Hebrew word for virgin: bethulah. If Isaiah 7:14 was meant to mean virgin instead of a young maiden, then why wasn’t the word used here?
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Problem: The way the critics flock to this passage, we might think that it was a central prophecy of the NT! In reality, it is cited only once—here in Matthew (Mt. 1:23). And yet, Matthew had good reason for citing it. Let’s consider a number of criticisms hurled against this passage.
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Problem: God tells Ahaz to ask for a sign to help confirm his faltering faith. However, Ahaz says, “I will not ask, nor will I test the Lord!” (Isa. 7:12) In addition to Ahaz’s statement, Deuteronomy 6:16 states, “You shall not put the Lord your God to the test.” However, Ahaz is considered to be a faithless king, and God gives him a sign anyhow (vv.13-14). Was Ahaz right or wrong in rejecting this sign? Is it right or wrong to ask for signs from God?
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Problem: Matthew writes, “This was to fulfill what was spoken through Isaiah the prophet: 15 ‘The land of Zebulun and the land of Naphtali, by the way of the sea, beyond the Jordan, Galilee of the Gentiles— 16 The people who were sitting in darkness saw a great Light, and those who were sitting in the land and shadow of death, upon them a Light dawned” (Mt. 4:14-16). Why does Matthew cite this passage, and how is fulfilled by Christ?
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