Jonah 3:10 – Did repentance alone cover the sins of these people?

Problem: Jonah states, “When God saw their deeds, that they turned from their wicked way, then God relented concerning the calamity which He had declared He would bring upon them. And He did not do it” (Jonah 3:10). Does this mean that people could be forgiven apart from the Temple sacrifices commanded in Leviticus? Of course, the Ninevites didn’t offer a blood sacrifice, but they were spared from judgment. Orthodox Jewish interpreters extrapolate this to the present day, saying that blood sacrifice in the Temple is not necessary for the Jewish people (because the Temple was destroyed in A.D. 70).

Continue reading →

Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Jonah 3:10 – Did God change his mind?

Problem: Many passages teach that God is immutable and doesn’t change his mind (1 Sam. 15:29; Mal. 3:6; Heb. 6:17; Jas. 1:17). However, this passage teaches that “the Lord changed his mind” (Ex. 32:14). Open theists argue that God doesn’t know the future, using this passage to support this theological conclusion. Does God change his mind or not?[1] Continue reading →

Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Jonah 3:6—Why does Jonah refer to the king of Assyria simply as the king of Nineveh?

Problem: Conservative scholars maintain that the Book of Jonah was written by the prophet Jonah who actually experienced the events recorded in the book. However, if the Book of Jonah was written by a Hebrew prophet who lived in the time of the Assyrian empire, why would he refer to the king of the Assyrian empire simply as the king of Nineveh?

Continue reading →

Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Jonah 3:6 – Why would Jonah write of the “king of Nineveh” if he was writing in the eighth century BC?

Problem: Critics of the historicity of Jonah argue that Jonah was written during the time of Ezra and Nehemiah in the fifth century—not the time of the eighth century BC, when it claims. They argue that Jonah (in the eighth century) would never have written of the “king of Nineveh.” He would have written the “king of Assyria.” Critics charge that Jonah was writing in the fifth century, and he was ignorant of the fact that the king of Nineveh was also the king of Assyria. Is this the case?

Continue reading →

Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Jonah 1:17 – Was Jonah really swallowed (and preserved) by a whale?

Problem: Jesus certainly seemed to think so, because he compared it with his resurrection, which was a historical fact. Christ said, “For just as JONAH WAS THREE DAYS AND THREE NIGHTS IN THE BELLY OF THE SEA MONSTER, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth” (Mt. 12:40). Archer adds,

Continue reading →

Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Jonah 1:1 – Was Jonah an actual historical figure? Or is the book of Jonah merely an allegory for the nation of Israel?

Problem: Critical theologians take this entire story to be allegory—not history. Jonah represents the Jews, the great sea represents the Gentile nations, the great whale represents Babylon, and the Great Fish represents the Exile. After Jonah (Israel) spends several days in the Great Fish (the Exile), he has a different attitude toward God’s will in reaching the Ninevites (the Gentiles). However, there are a number of problems with this allegorical interpretation:

 

Solution: First, nothing in the text gives us an indication that it is allegorical. Instead, it presents itself as historical in its genre.

Second, other biblical authors interpret this work as historical—not allegorical. Jonah’s work is mentioned in 2 Kings 14:25 as historical work. Kings says, “He restored the border of Israel from the entrance of Hamath as far as the Sea of the Arabah, according to the word of the LORD, the God of Israel, which He spoke through His servant Jonah the son of Amittai, the prophet, who was of Gath-hepher” (2 Kings 14:25; Compare with Jonah 1:1 “son of Amittai”). Moreover, and most importantly, Jesus compared Jonah’s historicity with the historicity of his resurrection from the dead (Mt. 12:39-41), which is essential Christian doctrine (1 Cor. 15:12-19).

Third, the allegory breaks down. For one, why would the allegory give three days in the whale to symbolize seventy years in Exile?

Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Jonah 1:1—Is the Book of Jonah fact or fiction?

Problem: Traditional Bible scholarship has held that the Book of Jonah records events that actually took place in history. However, because of the literary style of the book and the amazing adventures that are said to have befallen the prophet Jonah, many modern scholars propose that it is not a book of actual historical events, but a fictional story designed to communicate a message. Did the events of Jonah actually happen or not?

Continue reading →

Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Obadiah—Is the prophecy of Obadiah simply an expression of Jewish nationalism?

Problem: The prophecy of Obadiah is essentially a message of divine moral judgment upon the nations. Of the 21 verses that comprise this book, 16 are directed as pronouncements of coming judgment against Edom, and 5 verses are dedicated to the prophecies of the future triumph of Israel over Edom. But, isn’t this simply an example of Jewish nationalism rather than a revelation of God?

Continue reading →

Posted by petra1000

Amos 9:11 – Why does James cite Amos 9?

Problem: Amillennial theologians believe that Amos’ prediction of rebuilding the Temple is fulfilled in the church. Amos writes, “In that day I will raise up the fallen booth of David, and wall up its breaches; I will also raise up its ruins and rebuild it as in the days of old” (Amos 9:11). Since believers are the new Temple (1 Cor. 3:16; 6:19), James was claiming that the church replaces or fulfills this promises. Is this the case?

Continue reading →

Posted by petra1000

Amos 8:11—What does Amos mean when he says there will be a famine of hearing the words of the Lord?

Problem: Because of the sin of Israel, God pronounced through His prophet Amos that He would bring judgment upon the people. One aspect of that judgment was that there would be a famine of hearing the words of the Lord. However, there is no indication from history that the Hebrew Scriptures were destroyed or removed from Israel at this time. To what does the “famine” in hearing the words of the Lord refer?

Continue reading →

Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Amos 7:2-3 – Did God change his mind?

Problem: Many passages teach that God is immutable and doesn’t change his mind (1 Sam. 15:29; Mal. 3:6; Heb. 6:17; Jas. 1:17). However, this passage teaches that “the Lord changed his mind” (Ex. 32:14). Open theists argue that God doesn’t know the future, using this passage to support this theological conclusion. Does God change his mind or not?[1]

Continue reading →

Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Amos 3:6 – Does God create evil?

Problem: Isaiah writes that God is the one who “[causes] well-being and creating calamity” (Isa. 45:7). Older translations render this Hebrew ra’ as “evil” (ASV). Is God the author of evil?

Solution: No! God does not cause evil. The psalmist writes, “You are not a God who takes pleasure in wickedness; no evil dwells with You” (Ps. 5:4). He also writes, “There is no unrighteousness in Him” (Ps. 92:15). Paul writes, “What shall we say then? There is no injustice with God, is there? May it never be!” (Rom. 9:14). James writes, “Every good thing given and every perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of lights, with whom there is no variation or shifting shadow” (Jas. 1:17). More passages could be offered, but clearly, the Bible teaches that God is morally flawless and incapable of committing evil.

The Hebrew word for “evil” is ra’. While older translations render this as “evil,” newer translations render it “disaster” or “calamity.” Context determines its usage. Motyer writes, “Out of about 640 occurrences of the word ra‛ (which ranges in meaning from a ‘nasty’ taste to full moral evil) there are 275 instances where ‘trouble’ or ‘calamity’ is the meaning.”[1] Since the context of Isaiah 45 is disaster or calamity that Cyrus is bringing on Israel’s enemies, God is saying that he is bringing judgment. Grogan writes that God “brings disaster as a punishment for sin [and] is supreme over all. Isaiah has already shown that God brings calamitous judgment on men because of their sins (cf., e.g., 10:5–12).”[2] While Cyrus is the free moral agent, God is the sovereign Lord over history.

Good things come from God’s moral will (Jas. 1:17), while evil things come from his permissive will. Thus God doesn’t create evil, but he does allow it. Of course, while these categories exist in God’s character, Scripture often blurs the lines in explaining events. We agree with OT scholar Walter Kaiser who observes, “Scriptural language frequently attributes directly to God what he merely permits.”[3] Sometimes the Bible will claim that an act is the freewill decision of an individual; other times it will say the act was caused by God. Since God is sovereign (or in control) over all things, nothing occurs without him either causing or permitting it.

Several examples can be found in Scripture that state God as the direct cause of an event, while others explain that (behind the scenes), he is merely permitting this activity:

Who crucified Jesus? The Bible explains that Satan and evil men were the reason for Jesus being put on the Cross (Jn. 13:2). However, it explains that this was also due to “the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God” (Acts 2:23). Likewise, the freewill decisions of Pontius Pilate, Herod, and the people were all according to “whatever Your hand and Your purpose predestined to occur” (Acts 4:28).

Who killed Saul? Both 1 Samuel 31 and 1 Chronicles 10 make it clear that Saul committed suicide, killing himself (1 Sam. 31:4; 1 Chron. 10:4). Yet, we read, “The LORD put [Saul] to death and turned the kingdom over to David son of Jesse” (1 Chron. 10:14 NIV).

Samson wanted a Philistine girl, lusted after her, and took her. This was his free moral decision, which is morally prohibited by God. And yet, the author of Judges writes, “However, his father and mother did not know that it was of the Lord, for He was seeking an occasion against the Philistines” (Judg. 14:4). Here we see that Samson’s choice was evil, and yet, it was “of the Lord.” God had a plan in using this decision—even though Samson and his family were unaware of this (cf. Rom. 8:28; Gen. 50:20).

2 Samuel 24:1 explains that God caused David to number the people, but 1 Chronicles 21:1 explains that it was Satan who moved him.

1 Kings 22:23 explains, “The Lord has put a deceiving spirit in the mouth of all these your prophets.” This passage attributes the coming of an evil spirit directly and solely to God. However, when we read the context, we see that the evil spirit actually volunteered to do this (v.21), and God gave him permission to do it (v.22). While God does command the demon to “Go and do it,” this doesn’t necessarily mean that this is his active will. God also commands the people of Israel, “Go to Bethel and sin” (Amos 4:4 NIV). Clearly, God would never desire us to do this (i.e. his moral will), but he does permit this (i.e. his permissive will), because this is exactly what the people “loved to do” (Amos 4:5 NIV).

Job 1-2 state that Satan was the one to afflict Job, but at the end of the book, Job’s friends are said to comfort him “for all the adversities that the Lord had brought on him” (Job 42:11).

Exodus 12:23-24 states, “For the Lord will pass through to smite the Egyptians; and when He sees the blood on the lintel and on the two doorposts, the Lord will pass over the door and will not allow the destroyer to come in to your houses to smite you. 24 And you shall observe this event as an ordinance for you and your children forever.” However, the psalmist writes that this was actually—not the Lord—but “a band of destroying angels” (Ps. 78:49). No contradiction is warranted, when we realize that first and second causes are not distinguished in Hebrew thinking.

Other passages explain that Satan has to ask “permission” to attack humans (Lk. 22:31). Thus demonic activity (which is clearly evil) is still not God’s active will, but his permissive will. This language of causation is meant to communicate that God is sovereign. Nothing happens without him signing off on it. To the original audience (who was terrified of the demonic), this was probably a comforting message—even if it is difficult for modern people to comprehend, as we may take for granted the sovereignty of God over the demonic.

[1] Motyer, J. A. The Prophecy of Isaiah: An Introduction & Commentary. Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press, 1996, Isaiah 45:7.

[2] Grogan, G. W. (1986). Isaiah. In F. E. Gaebelein (Ed.), The Expositor’s Bible Commentary: Isaiah, Jeremiah, Lamentations, Ezekiel (Vol. 6, p. 271). Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan Publishing House.

[3] Kaiser, Walter C. More Hard Sayings of the Old Testament. Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity, 1992. 132.

Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty