Matthew 4:3-10 – Why do Luke and Matthew place Satan’s conversation out of order?

Problem: Mark merely refers to the temptation of Jesus (Mk. 1:12-13), but doesn’t give specifics. John omits the event altogether. Luke and Matthew both describe the temptation, yet they contain the conversation in a different order:

Luke 4

Matthew 4

Turning the stone into bread (vv.3-4) Turning the stone into bread (vv.3-4)
Seeing all the kingdoms of the world (vv.4-8) Urging him to fall from the pinnacle of the Temple (vv.5-7)
Urging him to fall from the pinnacle of the Temple (vv.9-12) Seeing all the kingdoms of the world (vv.8-10)

 

Is this a contradiction?

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Posted by petra1000

Matthew 3:15 – Why was Jesus baptized?

And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him. (Matt 3:15)”

Problem: Jesus was baptized, but normally, only sinners were baptized by John. Why was Jesus baptized? Was he secretly sinful and needed to repent of this before he could start his ministry?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Matthew 3:11 – Does this passage support the concept of a second blessing?

I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance. but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire: (Matt 3:11)”

Problem: John the Baptist states, “As for me, I baptize you with water for repentance, but He who is coming after me is mightier than I, and I am not fit to remove His sandals; He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire” (Mt. 3:11). Assemblies of God interpreters claim that this passage is referring to believers getting a “second blessing” by the Holy Spirit. In Acts 2, the early believers received the Holy Spirit with “tongues as of fire distributing themselves, and they rested on each one of them. 4 And they were all filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit was giving them utterance” (Acts 2:3-4). Does this make speaking in tongues normative for believers who receive the Holy Spirit?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Matthew 2:23 – Why does Matthew say this is from the Old Testament, when the Old Testament NEVER mentions “Nazareth” or “being a Nazarene?”

And he came and dwelt in a city called Nazareth: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, He shall be called a Nazarene. (Matt 2:23)”

Problem: Matthew 2:23 reads, “[He] came and lived in a city called Nazareth. This was to fulfill what was spoken through the prophets: “He shall be called a Nazarene.” Critics contend that this is a case of Matthew twisting the Scriptures.

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Matthew 2:23—Didn’t Matthew make a mistake by claiming a prophecy that is not found in the OT?

And he came and dwelt in a city called Nazareth: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, He shall be called a Nazarene.” (Matt 2:23)”

Problem: Matthew claims that Jesus moved to Nazareth to live, in order “that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, He shall be called a Nazarene” (Matt. 2:23). However, no such prophecy is found in any OT prophet. Did Matthew make a mistake?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Matthew 2:18 – Does Matthew quote Jeremiah 31:15 out of context?

In Rama was there a voice heard, lamentation, and weeping, and great mourning, Rachel weeping for her children, and would not be comforted, because they are not.  (Matt 2:18)”

Problem: Matthew quotes Jeremiah 31:15 to refer to the death of the babies in Bethlehem. But Jeremiah was writing (in context) about the children killed during the Babylonian exile 600 years earlier. Was Matthew quoting this out of context?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Matthew 2:16 – Did Herod really commit a mass genocide of babies?

“Then Herod, when he saw that he was mocked of the wise men, was exceeding wroth, and sent forth, and slew all the children that were in Bethlehem, and in all the coasts thereof, from two years old and under, according to the time which he had diligently inquired of the wise men. (Matt 2:16″

Problem: Matthew records that Herod killed all of the male babies under the age of two years old (Mt. 2:16). No other extrabiblical source mentions this. Josephus—a first century historian—follows the life of Herod, but he fails to mention this. How could such a major genocide not be mentioned by Josephus or anyone else?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty

Matthew 2:14-15 – How could Matthew quote Hosea as a “fulfillment” of Jesus, when Hosea was referring to the nation of Israel?

When he arose, he took the young child and his mother by night, and departed into Egypt: And was there until the death of Herod: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Out of Egypt have I called my son. (Matt 2:14-15)

Problem: Hosea 11:1 reads: “When Israel was a youth I loved him, and out of Egypt I called My son.” However, Matthew quotes this passage as though Jesus was the fulfillment. Critics argue that Matthew was pulling this passage out of its context. Had Matthew bothered to read the beginning of the verse, he would have seen that this was about the nation of Israel—not the Messiah. Thus in his article “Matthew Twists the Scriptures,” critical scholar S.V. McCasland writes, “The interpretation of Hosea 11:1 not only illustrates how early Christians found a meaning entirely foreign to the original; it may also show how incidents in the story of Jesus have been inferred from the OT… [This] indicates how desperately early Christians searched the Scrip­tures to find proof for the things happening among them.”[1] Is this the case?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty