Problem: Some critics have suggested that the fact that only a few saw Jesus after His resurrection indicates that He was essentially invisible to the human eye, and only materialized to a few people on select occasions. But this is contrary to the orthodox contention that Jesus’ resurrection was literal and physical.
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1 Cor 15:5–8 – Did Jesus only appear to believers?
Problem: Some critics have attempted to cast doubt on the validity of Christ’s resurrection by insisting that He appeared only to believers, but never to unbelievers. Is this so?
1 Cor 15:3-5 – Did Paul receive the Gospel from man or not?
Problem: Many have argued that there is a necessary contradiction between 1 Corinthians 15 and Galatians 1. In 1 Corinthians 15, Paul received a creed (formulaic statement of belief) and passed it on to the Corinthians. This creed was probably composed shortly after Jesus‘ crucifixion by various Christians. Many scholars argue that Paul likely received this creed from the Jerusalem apostles (cf. Gal. 1-2). However, Paul says in Galatians 1:11-12 that he did not receive the Gospel from man.
1 Cor 15:3-5 – Was this an early Christian statement of faith?
Problem: Scholars claim that this excerpt from 1 Corinthians 15 is actually a very early Christian statement of faith. Is this the case?
1 Cor 15:2 – Does this passage threaten eternal security?
Problem: Paul says that salvation is conditional on following Christ (“if you hold fast the word”). He also questions whether they were even Christians in the first place (“unless you believed in vain”). Doesn’t this threaten the doctrine of eternal security?
1 Cor 14:33 – If God is not the author of confusion, what about the Tower of Babel?
This isn’t a difficult issue at all. On the one hand, God is not the author of confusion: “For God is not a God of confusion but of peace, as in all the churches of the saints,” (1 Cor. 14:33). The context of this verse is dealing with the gift of tongues as were spoken in Christian churches in its early years.
1 Cor. 14:34-35 – Are women supposed to keep silent?
Problem: Paul writes, “The women are to keep silent [Greek sigaōpronounced see-GAH-oh] in the churches; for they are not permitted to speak [Greek laleō; pronounced la-LAY-oh], but are to subject themselves, just as the Law also says. 35 If they desire to learn anything, let them ask their own husbands at home; for it is improper for a woman to speak in church” (1 Cor. 14:34-35). Are women allowed to speak during Bible studies or not? Does the OT Law really teach that women should be silent?

