Problem: Peter writes, “Because he who has suffered in the flesh has ceased from sin” (1 Pet. 4:1). Does Peter really believe that Christians can reach a state of sinless perfection?
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1 Peter 3:21 – Are we saved by faith or by baptism?
Problem:
Are we saved from our sins by faith or by faith and baptism? Though the Bible says that baptism is a very important part of the Christian life, it is not necessary for salvation. The truth is that we are saved by faith alone in Christ alone. Let’s take a look at scriptures used for both sides.
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1 Peter 3:19 – Does Peter support the view that a person can be saved after he dies?
Problem: First Peter 3:19 says that, after His death, Christ “went and preached to the spirits in prison.” But the Bible also says that “it is appointed for men to die once, but after this the judgment” (Heb. 9:27). These two verses appear to teach mutually opposing positions.
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1 Peter 3:18 – Was Jesus raised in the Spirit or in a physical body?
Problem: Peter declares that Christ was “put to death in the flesh but made alive in the spirit” (nasb). This seems to imply that Jesus did not rise in the flesh, but only in His spirit, which conflicts with Jesus’ statement that His resurrection body was “flesh and bones” (Luke 24:39).
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1 Peter 3:15 – Why does Peter command believers to reason about their faith when the Bible says elsewhere to simply believe?
Problem: Over and over again the Scriptures insist that one should simply believe in God (cf. John 3:16; Acts 16:31). Hebrews declares that “without faith it is impossible to please God” (Heb. 11:6). Paul contended that, “the world through wisdom did not know God” (1 Cor. 1:21). Yet Peter here instructs believers to “defend” and give a “reason” for their faith. Aren’t faith and reason opposed?
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1 Peter 3:7 – Does Peter think that women are inferior to men?
Problem: Peter writes that women are “someone weaker” (1 Pet. 3:7). Is Peter speaking in a derogatory or condescending sense here? Did Peter believe that women were inferior to men?
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1 Peter 3:6 – When did Sarah obey Abraham in the OT?
Problem: Peter writes, “Sarah obeyed Abraham, calling him lord” (1 Pet. 3:6). Some interpreters argue that this refers to Sarah obeying Abraham, when he chose to lie and have her sleep with the Egyptian Pharaoh (Gen. 12:13) and later to Abimelech (Gen. 20:5, 13). Some interpreters argue that we should submit to authority—even if it means sinning against God (i.e. committing adultery). Is this the case?
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