Problem: In 1 Corinthians 3:19 the Apostle Paul quotes from the Book of Job a statement made by one of Job’s friends Eliphaz which says, “For it is written, `He catches the wise in their own craftiness’ ” (cf. Job 5:13). Yet later in Job, God says to Eliphaz, “My wrath is aroused against you and your two friends, for you have not spoken of Me what is right, as My servant Job has” (Job 42:7). If what Eliphaz spoke was not right, then can his words be considered inspired?

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Problem: Some Christians will use this passage to denounce cigarette smoking. Paul writes, “If any man destroys the temple of God, God will destroy him, for the temple of God is holy, and that is what you are” (1 Cor. 3:17). Will God destroy someone for polluting their body with cigarettes? Continue reading →

Problem: Some evangelical interpreters argue that the notion of a bema seat reward nullifies grace. If we earn our reward, then doesn’t this conflict with the doctrine of grace? For instance (a commentator that I personally respect) Craig Blomberg writes,

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Problem: In this text, Paul insists that “no other foundation can anyone lay than that which is laid, which is Jesus Christ.” On the other hand, Paul told the Ephesians that the church is “built on the foundation of the apostles” (Eph. 2:20). Which is it?

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Problem: Why does Paul cite this passage in Isaiah 40 to support our need for the Holy Spirit to have wisdom? Continue reading →

Problem: Some Reformed interpreters (specifically from a Van Tillian, presuppositional perspective) claim that non-Christians cannot be persuaded with evidence, because they simply refuse to accept God’s authority through Scripture. Does this passage support this claim?

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Problem: Critics often argue that Paul quotes the OT out of context. Specifically, in this citation, we cannot find a clear OT citation for this passage—though Isaiah 64:4 and 65:16 are possible passages. What is Paul quoting from? And why does he cite this specific passage?

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Problem: Is Paul referring to Pilate, Caiaphas, and Herod, when he mentions the “rulers of this age?” Or is he referring to demonic rulers?

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Problem: Critics often accuse Paul of taking OT passages out of context. Is this the case?

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