1 Cor 6:9 – Was Paul against all homosexual acts or only offensive ones?

Problem: According to the niv, 1 Corinthians 6:9 speaks only against “homosexual offenders,” not against homosexuality as such. That is, the passage only condemns offensive homosexual acts, but it is not against homosexual activity per se. Was Paul against homosexual behavior or only offensive homosexual behavior?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

1 Cor 6:9 – Was Paul’s condemnation of homosexuality merely his private opinion?

Problem: Paul told the Corinthians that “neither fornicators … nor homosexuals … will inherit the kingdom of God” (6:9–10). But in the same book he admitted that he was only giving his private “opinion” (1 Cor. 7:25, nasb). In fact, Paul admitted, “I have no commandment from the Lord” (v. 25), and “I [say this], not the Lord” (v. 10). Was not this, by his own confession, merely Paul’s own nonbinding opinion on this issue?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

1 Cor 5:9—If Paul wrote an inspired epistle, how could God allow it to be lost?

 

Problem: Paul refers to a previous epistle he “wrote” to the Corinthians which is not in existence. But since it was written by an apostle to a church and contained spiritual and authoritative instruction, it must be considered inspired. This raises the question as to how an epistle inspired of God could be allowed by Him to be lost.

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

1 Cor. 5:5 – Handed over to Satan?

Problem: Paul writes, “I have decided to deliver such a one to Satan for the destruction of his flesh, so that his spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus” (1 Cor. 5:5). Elsewhere, Paul writes, “Among these are Hymenaeus and Alexander, whom I have handed over to Satan, so that they will be taught not to blaspheme” (1 Tim. 1:20). What does Paul mean by this expression?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

1 Cor 4:13 – Did Paul swear?

Problem: Paul uses the term “scum” (Greek perikatharma) and “refuse” (Greek peripsema). In the original Greek, these words were fairly profane. Blomberg writes, “The words translated here as ‘scum’ and ‘refuse’ are fairly vulgar in the original Greek; their closest English equivalents would offend so many people that modern translations use euphemistic language like this instead!”[1] Did Paul cuss here?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching