Rom 9:17 – God hardened Pharaoh’s heart. Is that right?

Problem: God hardened Pharaoh’s heart. Is that right?
Romans 9:17-18, “For the Scripture says to Pharaoh, ‘For this very purpose I raised you up, to demonstrate My power in you, and that My name might be proclaimed throughout the whole earth.’ 18 So then He has mercy on whom He desires, and He hardens whom He desires.”

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

Rom 9:17—How can Pharaoh be free if God hardened his heart?

Problem: God said to Pharaoh, “For this very purpose I raised you up, to demonstrate my power in you, and that my name might be proclaimed throughout the whole earth” (Rom. 9:17, nasb). In fulfillment of this, it says that God hardened Pharaoh’s heart (Ex. 4:21; cf. Ex. 7:3). But if God raised up Pharaoh and even hardened his heart to accomplish His divine purposes, then isn’t Pharaoh exempt from responsibility for his actions? Continue reading →

Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

Rom 8:36 – Why does Paul quote Psalm 44:22?

Problem: Psalm 44 begins with the psalmist recounting God’s faithfulness with Israel in the past (vv.1-8). But then the psalmist points out that God has allowed his people to be thrown into exile and judgment (vv.9-16). This makes the psalmist wonder how they could be suffering, if they have remained so faithful to God (v.17-21). It is in this context that the psalmist writes, “But for Your sake we are killed all day long; we are considered as sheep to be slaughtered” (v.22). It ends with a plea to God to rescue them from their enemies.

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching

Rom 8:26-27 – Does this refer to speaking in tongues?

Problem: Paul writes, “In the same way the Spirit also helps our weakness; for we do not know how to pray as we should, but the Spirit Himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words; 27 and He who searches the hearts knows what the mind of the Spirit is, because He intercedes for the saints according to the will of God” (Rom. 8:26-27). Pentecostal theologians hold that this refers to speaking in tongues. Is this the case?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Bible Teaching