Problem: Paul writes, “For our struggle is not against flesh and blood, but against the rulers, against the powers, against the world forces of this darkness, against the spiritual forces of wickedness in the heavenly places” (Eph. 6:12). Some scholars claim that these words (“rulers” “powers” “world forces”) actually refer to human authorities—not demonic beings. Is this the case?
Problem: Critics of the Bible have argued that Scripture is chauvinistic toward women. For instance, critical scholar Peter Richardson writes, “The goal in Paul’s exegesis appears to be, without I hope being unduly harsh, greater conformity with the… view of subordination of women.”[1] While this might sound harsh, the Bible has very difficult passages toward women. For instance, Peter writes, “Wives [should] be submissive to your own husbands” (1 Pet. 3:1). Elsewhere, Paul writes, “The man is the head of a woman” (1 Cor. 11:3), and he states, “Wives, submit yourselves unto your own husbands, as unto the Lord. For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body Therefore as the church is subject unto Christ, so let the wives be to their own husbands in every thing. (Eph. 5:22-24). Is this a sexist attitude toward women? Critics argue that this is ancient patriarchy at its worst.
Religion has never been kind toward women Continue reading →
Problem: Does the Bible support slavery? Skeptics of the Bible often claim that it does. For instance, in their book What the Bible Really Says, skeptics Morton Smith and R. Joseph Hoffman write,
There is no reasonable doubt that the New Testament, like the Old, not only tolerated chattel slavery (the form prevalent in the Greco-Roman world of Paul’s time) but helped to perpetuate it by making the slaves’ obedience to their masters a religious duty. This biblical morality was one of the greatest handicaps that the emancipation movement in the United States had to overcome.[1]
How should believers respond to such claims? Does the Bible support slavery?
Problem: Paul writes, “For this you know with certainty, that no immoral or impure person or covetous man, who is an idolater, has an inheritance in the kingdom of Christ and God. 6 Let no one deceive you with empty words, for because of these things the wrath of God comes upon the sons of disobedience” (Eph. 5:5-6). Does this passage teach that Christians will be sent to hell for living an immoral lifestyle?
Problem: On the one hand, the Bible seems to approve of anger, saying, “be angry” (Eph. 4:26). On the other hand, the Bible seems to disapprove of it, listing it as one of the “works of the flesh” (Gal. 5:19–20).
Problem: Mark 10:14-15 claims that we should become like children, but this passage states that we shouldn’t become like children. Which is true?
Problem: Some interpreters claim that Christ descended into hell between his death and resurrection. Is this the case?
Problem: Paul claims here that Jesus “descended into the lower parts of the earth.” And the Apostles’ Creed declares that after Jesus died, He “descended into hell.” However, when Jesus was dying, He committed His spirit into His Father’s hand (Luke 23:46) and told the thief that He would be with Him in “paradise” (Luke 23:43) which is in the “third heaven” (2 Cor. 12:2, 4). Where did Jesus go—to heaven or to hell?
Problem: Critics claim that Paul deliberately twisted the OT text. Paul writes that God “gave gifts to men” (Eph. 4:8). However, in the original text, we read that God “received gifts among men” (Ps. 68:18). Which is true?
Problem: Paul quotes Psalm 68:18 saying, “When He ascended on high, He led captivity captive, and gave gifts to men” (Eph. 4:8). Yet the OT Psalm reads, “You have ascended on high, you have led captivity captive; you have received gifts among men.” Is there a discrepancy here between these two texts?