Church

Deuteronomy 20:10-14 – Does this sanction raping women from war?

Problem: Deuteronomy records several instructions for women who had been taken over in war. We read, “When you go out to battle against your enemies, and the Lord your God delivers them into your hands and you take them away captive, 11 and see among the captives a beautiful woman, and have a desire for her and would take her as a wife for yourself, 12 then you shall bring her home to your house, and she shall shave her head and trim her nails. 13 She shall also remove the clothes of her captivity and shall remain in your house, and mourn her father and mother a full month; and after that you may go in to her and be her husband and she shall be your wife. 14 It shall be, if you are not pleased with her, then you shall let her go wherever she wishes; but you shall certainly not sell her for money, you shall not mistreat her, because you have humbled her” (Deut. 21:10-14). Critics assert that this passage sanction military rape and conquest. Is this the case?
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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Study, Calvinistic, Church

Is it true that 1 John 5:7 is not in any Greek manuscript before the 1600s? If that is true, why is it in the King James Bible?

1 John 5:7 belongs in the King James Bible and was preserved by faithful Christians. But the passage was removed from many Greek manuscripts, because of the problems it seemed to cause.

It is true that there is a small number of Scriptures that are not the same between the King James Bible and the so-called “Majority” Greek text. There are a number of reasons for this:

  1. The so-called “Majority” text was not really based on the majority of texts, but rather a relatively small number of manuscripts. The last person to try to find the differences between the majority of Greek manuscripts, Dr. Von Soden, did not collate more than 400 of the more than 5,000 Greek texts. In other words, what is commonly called the “Majority” Greek text is not a collation of the majority of manuscripts at all.
  2. The “Majority” Greek text is also the main Greek text used by the Eastern Orthodox religion. They had a vested interest in changing (or deleting) some texts. More on this in a moment.
  3. 1 John itself is not in a large number of extant Greek manuscripts.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

So why then is 1 John 5:7 in the King James Bible, but not in many of the existing Greek manuscripts? To understand the answer, we must look at the history of what happened shortly after the Bible was written.

The Greek and Roman Institutions

During the early growth of the Christian church, ministers (whether saved or not) wrote down doctrines that they said were Christian and Biblical. Starting after the death of the apostles (about 100 AD) many people taught the lie that Jesus was not God the Son and Son of God, or that Jesus became God at His baptism, or the false doctrine that the Holy Spirit was not God or was not eternal.

The growing religion that became known as Roman Catholic, after many debates eventually agreed on the doctrine of the Trinity. So they had no reason to remove 1 John 5:7 from their Bibles, since it supported what they taught.

But the Greek Eastern Orthodox religion was combating a heresy called “Sabellianism,” and would have found it easier to combat the heresy by simply removing the troubling passage from their Bibles.

A Trail of Evidence

But during this same time, we find mention of 1 John 5:7, from about 200 AD through the 1500s. Here is a useful timeline of references to this verse:

200 AD Tertullian wrote “which three are one” based on the verse in his Against Praxeas, chapter 25.
250 AD Cyprian of Carthage, wrote, “And again, of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost it is written: “And the three are One” in his On The Lapsed, On the Novatians, (see note for Old Latin)
350 AD Priscillian referred to it [Corpus Scriptorum Ecclesiasticorum Latinorum, Academia Litterarum Vindobonensis, vol. xviii, p. 6.]
350 AD Idacius Clarus referred to it [Patrilogiae Cursus Completus, Series Latina by Migne, vol. 62, col. 359.]
350 AD Athanasius referred to it in his De Incarnatione
398 AD Aurelius Augustine used it to defend Trinitarianism in De Trinitate against the heresy of Sabellianism
415 AD Council of Carthage appealed to 1 John 5:7 when debating the Arian belief (Arians didn’t believe in the deity of Jesus Christ)
450-530 AD Several orthodox African writers quoted the verse when defending the doctrine of the Trinity against the gainsaying of the Vandals. These writers are:
A) Vigilius Tapensis in “Three Witnesses in Heaven”
B) Victor Vitensis in his Historia persecutionis [Corpus Scriptorum Ecclesiasticorum Latinorum, Academia Litterarum Vindobonensis, vol. vii, p. 60.]
C) Fulgentius in “The Three Heavenly Witnesses” [Patrilogiae Cursus Completus, Series Latina by Migne, vol. 65, col. 500.]
500 AD Cassiodorus cited it [Patrilogiae Cursus Completus, Series Latina by Migne, vol. 70, col. 1373.]
550 AD Old Latin ms r has it
550 AD The “Speculum” has it [The Speculum is a treatise that contains some good Old Latin scriptures.]
750 AD Wianburgensis referred to it
800 AD Jerome’s Vulgate has it [It was not in Jerome’s original Vulgate, but was brought in about 800 AD from good Old Latin manuscripts.]
1000s AD miniscule 635 has it
1150 AD minuscule ms 88 in the margin
1300s AD miniscule 629 has it
157-1400 AD Waldensian (that is, Vaudois) Bibles have the verse
1500 AD ms 61 has the verse
Even Nestle’s 26th edition Greek New Testament, based upon the corrupt Alexandrian text, admits that these and other important manuscripts have the verse: 221 v.l.; 2318 Vulgate [Claromontanus]; 629; 61; 88; 429 v.l.; 636 v.l.; 918; l; r.

The Vaudois

Now the “Waldensian,” or “Vaudois” Bibles stretch from about 157 to the 1400s AD. The fact is, according to John Calvin’s successor Theodore Beza, that the Vaudois received the Scriptures from missionaries of Antioch of Syria in the 120s AD and finished translating it into their Latin language by 157 AD. This Bible was passed down from generation, until the Reformation of the 1500s, when the Protestants translated the Vaudois Bible into French, Italian, etc. This Bible carries heavy weight when finding out what God really said. John Wesley and Jonathan Edwards believed, as most of the Reformers, that the Vaudois were the descendants of the true Christians, and that they preserved the Christian faith for the Bible-believing Christians today.

Who Has the Most to Gain? Who Has the Most to Lose?

The evidence of history shows us that the Roman Catholic religion was relentless in its effort to destroy the Vaudois and their Bible. It took them until the 1650s to finish their hateful attacks. But the Vaudois were successful in preserving God’s words to the days of the Reformation.

Now we have to ask ourselves a question: Who had the most to gain by adding to or taking away from the Bible? Did the Vaudois, who were being killed for having their Bibles, have anything to gain by adding to or taking from the words of God? Compromise is what the Roman religion wanted! Had the Vaudois just followed the popes, their lives would have been much easier. But they counted the cost. This was not politics; it was their life and soul. They above all people would not want to change a single letter of the words they received from Antioch of Syria. And they paid for this with their lives.

What about the “scholars” at Alexandria, Egypt? We already know about them. They could not even make their few 45 manuscripts agree. How could we believe they preserved God’s words?

The Reformation itself owes a lot to these Christians in the French Alps. They not only preserved the Scriptures, but they show to what lengths God would go to keep his promise (Psalm 12:6-7).

And that’s only part of the story about the preservation of God’s words.

Posted by petra1000 in Bible Proof, Bible Study, Bible Teaching, Church, History

What is wrong with our churches today?

The following applies to professing Christians in The West

The Bible

63% – God is not the provider of truth and the Bible cannot be trusted to fully

represent God-given principles

13% – Read their Bible regularly [which means 87% are open to man’s interptation]

41-43% – consider scripture to be “accurate in its teaching”

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Posted by petra1000 in Apologetics, Bible Study, Bible Teaching, Church

Acts 16:1–3 – Why did Paul have Timothy circumcised when he himself spoke so strongly against it?

Problem: Paul’s main point in Galatians can be summarized in his words, “If you become circumcised, Christ will profit you nothing” (Gal. 5:2). Yet Paul admits that he had Timothy circumcised “because of the Jews who were in that region” (Acts 16:3). Wasn’t this a contradiction to his own teaching.

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Church, History

Acts 15:1 – Is this passage referring to the Council of Jerusalem or is it something else?

Problem: Some scholars believe that Acts 15 and Galatians 2:1-10 are describing the same event from two different perspectives, because these two events have so much in common.[1] First, both passages describe an important event in Jerusalem. Second, both passages have the same people involved (e.g. Paul, Barnabas, Peter, James and Judaizers). Third, both passages seem to be dealing with the same subject (i.e. Gentile acceptance and participation in both salvation and fellowship). Fourth, both passages mention that circumcision is not necessary for salvation. And fifth, both passages refer to the internal struggles of Christian believers. Are these passages describing the same event?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Church, History

Acts 9:7 – Did the men with Paul hear the voice or not?

They heard the voice

Acts 9:7, KJV, “And the men which journeyed with him stood speechless, hearing a voice, but seeing no man”
Acts 9:7, NASB, “And the men who traveled with him stood speechless, hearing the voice, but seeing no one.”
Acts 9:7, NIV, “The men traveling with Saul stood there speechless; they heard the sound but did not see anyone.”

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Church

Acts 8:20-24 – Did Simon lose his salvation?

Problem: Luke records that Simon believed in Christ—along with the rest of the people in Samaria. But when he tried to gain the power of giving out the Holy Spirit, Peter tells him, “May your silver perish with you, because you thought you could obtain the gift of God with money! 21 You have no part or portion in this matter, for your heart is not right before God. 22 Therefore repent of this wickedness of yours, and pray the Lord that, if possible, the intention of your heart may be forgiven you. 23 For I see that you are in the gall of bitterness and in the bondage of iniquity 24 Then answered Simon, and said, Pray ye to the Lord for me, that none of these things which ye have spoken come upon me. (Acts 8:20-24).” Did Simon lose his salvation?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Church, History

Acts 8:14-15 – Why did Peter and John need to come down to preach in Samaria?

Problem: This passage states, “Now when the apostles in Jerusalem heard that Samaria had received the word of God, they sent them Peter and John, 15 who came down and prayed for them that they might receive the Holy Spirit 16 For He had not yet fallen upon any of them; they had simply been baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. 17 Then they began laying their hands on them, and they were receiving the Holy Spirit” (Acts 8:14-17). Why did Peter and John need to come up to Samaria to preach, and why was there a delay in the Samaritans receiving the Holy Spirit?

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Posted by petra1000 in Bible Difficulty, Bible Study, Church, History